That's irrelevant.
The point is, Occidental societies which existed prior to 1920 accomplished just as much (if not more)* as Occidental societies do today, so really, your assertion that there's any kind of correlation between "accomplishments" and the "oppression" of women is absurd.
*Arguably, most of the accomplishments prior to 1920 were of far more achievement than those today, as they not only laid all the groundwork for today's technological/scientific advancements, but they did so without all of the technological luxuries which we have today (most of which are the result of the Industrial Revolution).
Furthermore, the fact that we've accomplished so much since 1920, has more to do with the Industrial Revolution than anything else. Industrialize any society which is already making significant advances in science and technology, and you'll see a drastic increase in those advancements.
You mean like America during the time around 1789? If that's evidence of what happens, then count me in.