- Joined
- May 10, 2007
- Messages
- 8,781
I think the big disconnect that is often had is consent vs. not consent, and I would also add as to what the grievances are for those who do not consent.I would offer as one alternative that your layman's definition isn't really a definition of the word "state" but of the word "government." As already mentioned, that definition would exclude North Korea and other similar entities. On the other hand, it includes things like neighborhood groups, churches, and so on, which are not normally considered states.
Alternatively, I would offer as a definition of a state the following (which might need tweaking, since I'm going off the cuff):
This definition might not be ideal either, since it would include street gangs. But then, the initial bias I have against broadening the definition of "state" to include street gangs may not be valid. Truth be told, I can't think of a good reason not to call them states.
So the question comes to, can there be a state/government derived only from those who consent it? Or must all states, by definition, include people who don't consent?
How is having non-consent a requirement to being a state?