It's not collectively owned. It is unowned, and unownable, so those who deprive others of their liberty to use it must make just compensation for forcibly violating their rights.
See, helmuth? Told you different words would be used, and that would make it indisputably and self-evidently different.
0:45 OK, Not-land-owner State, want to go out and charge some Not-rents? The
other-than-ownership-power to charge
other-than-rent for occupancy of
other-than-ownable-land will be appraised at a "fair market value" by an
other-than-landlord-state.
Of course, forget that the net effect would be exactly the same as if the land was said to be collectively owned, but that is only if you want to quibble with words and paradigms from some other planet. We won't call it that on our planet, because that's propertarian language that we want eradicated, as this is Dawning of the Non-propertarian Age of Aquarius.
Under a Georgist LVT regime, exclusive tenure will no longer constitute a welfare subsidy giveaway to "the exclusive landholders" (the Georgist Bourgeois), at the expense of "the productive" (the Georgist Proletariat). Not sure how the distinction is made, since exclusive landholders who are paying the highest LVT are also presumed to be "the most productive". Hence, in many cases, Bourgeois=Proletariat, which means they will not be given a welfare subsidy at their own expense(?). Even so, this decidedly and presumptively non-Marxist way will constitute an Honest Injun, We Guarantee It, Indisputable And Self-Evident Intention of not forcing "the productive" to relinquish the fruits of their labor.
But is that true?
Leaseholds will be valued such that the "presumably most productive" entities (as evidenced by rent payments alone) will be forced to return only the
"publicly created value" that was magically infused into the land, as provided for by society and government. This is why it cannot be considered a relinquishing of "the fruits of their labor". This in turn will fund "the mechanism" for securing the equal liberty rights of all to use land (not sure what "the mechanism" is, or exactly how it secures equal liberty rights to use all land, but that's what Roy wrote).
The only other thing I'm not
quite sure about:
Clearly, an
ad valorem land value tax places land-value-dependent commerce at a disadvantage from all other commerce, as leaseholders bear all the costs of government (at least under the idealized Georgist "single tax" system). However, is it even accurate to say that land-value-dependent commerce is "bearing" those costs, given that the "productive" leaseholders, who are paying all the highest costs for their exclusive land use, would simply continue, as they always have, to pass those costs on to the end-of-line consumers, who
ultimately pay all bills, including all the taxes?
It would seem that an LVT is really tantamount to a complex internal tariff on all goods and services that are highly land-use and land-value dependent (read=
most of the basic needs that all humans require for basic survival, which comes from the land itself). If that really is the case, how does land, via land-dependent commerce, not remain a mere channel through which basic needs are taxed, and consumer productivity (individual wealth) is really and ultimately siphoned?
Lastly, the "Henry George Theorem"
states that under certain ideal conditions, aggregate spending by government will be equal to aggregate rent based on land value (land rent).
You can see where the intent lies for LVT proponents. Here are two enormous, but roughly equal, amounts of wealth siphoned from the public. Simply divert that nice, juicy revenue stream away from the landowners, and channel it to government, and you can eliminate other taxes altogether at the expense of both destructive taxes and equally destructive "landowner privilege". Sounds simple enough.
My problems with this:
First and foremost, the Georgist paradigm identifies renters as productive, and landowners as parasites, even when they are owner-occupiers. So it's plain enough to me why government cannot be referred to as a "collective landowner", as that could be like saying "collective parasite". No, the state, in combination with "society", provides a "publicly created value", and "access to all that nature provides", once it is recognized as the right of everyone, means that a collection of land value rents is not parasitic, but merely a mechanism for recovering what was "deprived" of others "by force". And the state is not collecting for itself, but rather, ostensibly, on behalf of those who were "otherwise at liberty" but dispossessed.
With an absolute state-controlled monopoly on leaseholds, however, and no competing interests with which to compare real "market value", what would stop LVT rents from multiplying to many times what they otherwise might have been under a strictly landowner market - such that the aggregate LVT/government spending exceeds the prior aggregate of both rents and government expenditures combined? And how, PRECISELY, would you know this with any certainty? Do you trust that government is capable of fair and proper valuation
of anything at all? I don't. Never will, in fact. Roy has what he believes is a formula (which I'll call the Georgist Roy Standard). But why would the state be trusted to follow that when it can't even be trusted with following and protecting something as truly simple as a gold standard (i.e., one UNIT of currency = one WEIGHT/PURITY of metal)?
Even if I accepted the Georgist liberty rights of-everything-to-everyone premise, which I do not, the extent that government overvalues and otherwise manipulates land to artificially increase its value (through special zoning, artificial scarcity, etc.,) would be the extent to which I viewed (as I do now our current government) as little more than a presumptuous, self-serving, winner choosing and wealth-redistributing parasite.