No. The landowner already initiated violence or threats thereof to deprive others of their liberty to use the land, or got government to do it for him.
That made no sense to me, please help me to understand using the following example. And please be aware that this is coming from someone who believes that a natural, inalienable
right to homestead exists for all people on Earth, so the following example would only apply to land that is occupied and/or otherwise directly worked by its inhabitants - natural persons only - and especially as a matter of survival.
I'm a homesteader traveling with a group of fellow travelers possessed of a wide variety of skills, in the foothills of the Sierras in 1850. We go slightly off the beaten trail, only to discover a nice secluded area with an abundance of natural resources on which we can all survive. We like it so much that we decide to forget the gold rush entirely and settle there. We live like this, in our log cabin community, unmolested (and for that matter undetected), for an entire generation. We are never attacked, and never once are forced to defend ourselves (against other humans). No government papers are ever filed, and no government is ever directly involved in our affairs.
Because we have worked so hard to establish and build up our community, we have zero intention of ever moving. The only way we will move from this land is if someone initiated sufficient force against us - furthermore, it is against our very "Gandhi-esque" religion to exercise force or initiate violence, or threats of violence, against others. So while this makes us (if but in our minds only) "owners" of the lands we occupy, in that we will never, EVER submit voluntarily to a tax of any kind, nor will we leave the land we occupy willingly, we are admittedly vulnerable to removal by unilateral initiation of violence and/or actual use of force by others.
But we are not facing any of this. Not yet. It's just "a territory" at this point - most people are not even aware that we exist, and no taxes have been suggested, let alone levied. Nobody in the settlement has any dispute with anyone else regarding ownership or use of land, let alone any conception that others may be depriving them of any liberty or right by simply existing and occupying a nearby plot of parceled off land.
1) Where is the violence or threats of force on our parts?
2) At this point has anyone outside our little settlement been "deprived" of a liberty, and if so, who, how, how far does that extend, and how is that determined?
3) Have WE been deprived of OUR liberty to use land that is occupied by others outside our settlement? If so, who has deprived us, how far does that extend, and how exactly is that determined? In addition to whatever compensation we owe, how can we be compensated in return?
4) Are those within the settlement depriving
each other of their liberty to use the land that others' respective homes are now on? If so, what if you presented this idea to them and they unanimously disagreed? If they don't feel deprived in any way, would their 'voluntary waiver' of what you consider a liberty right to use lands that are occupied by others count for anything?
5) I trade places with one of my neighbors - straight across trade - his cabin located near the creek is more useful to me as a grain miller, where I can erect a paddle wheel, and my cabin and farm house located by a large meadow are more useful to him as a grain farmer. Based on this exchange, have we "trafficked in stolen goods"?
So here is my difficulty: I am now occupying and claiming an unqualified right to use what amounts to a "parcel" of land (practical boundary delineations only: a house, a yard, a farmhouse, a fence to keep livestock in, and other fences to keep animals out of farmed lands). Nothing else. No "claims" to lands which do not serve a useful purpose, or are otherwise not actually worked or improved upon. At this point, theoretically, could someone -
anyone - enter THIS community, without staking any land claim ("usage" or otherwise) on any of the surrounding (and abundantly available at this point) land, or making any improvements of his own, and approach each of us, saying, in effect, "I have an equal right to use each piece of land that you have all parceled off for yourselves. This constitutes a deprivation to me, as an individual, and you all therefore owe me for what you have taken from me."?
If one man cannot do this (or can he, assuming he is the only other one around?), can two? Three? Can just one do this, but only so long as he is acting on behalf of a government? If so, is "government" the key, without which no one or more people could justify such a claim (not to "ownership", but to a right to receive compensation for land that is "occupied", or otherwise "in use" by others, but is no longer available for him to use)?