mediahasyou
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- Feb 24, 2008
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The correct price is zero.
The correct price is zero.
I find it hilarious for you to say that when your signature has this quote:
"That government is best, which governs least." - Thomas Jefferson
If the "correct" price is zero, wouldn't Jefferson have instead said:
That government is best, which governs zero.
I heartily accept the motto,—“That government is best which governs least;” and I should like to see it acted up to more rapidly and systematically. Carried out, it finally amounts to this, which I also believe,—“That government is best which governs not at all;” and when men are prepared for it, that will be the kind of government which they will have. Government is at best but an expedient; but most governments are usually, and all governments are sometimes, inexpedient.
HENRY DAVID THOREAU, Civil Disobedience, first paragraph, Walden and Civil Disobedience, ed. Owen Thomas, p. 224 (1966). This essay was first published in 1849.
Make no mistake: I agree with the Jefferson quote, but I find it difficult to follow it to the extreme: anarchy. It's an interesting topic to discuss in theory, but I'd like to see it work in practice. Can you point to any existing anarchical society?
You're an anarchist Conza?
It doesn't matter whether maliciousness was intended or not - it depends how the public perceived my (in)action. In any case, you didn't answer my question: are we not slaves to society?
I believe I already successfully argued that there is a cost associated with living in a society,
but here's another argument: let's take the simplest form of society: two people. Let's examine a two person society: a married couple. To live together, they must be willing to make concessions to the other. When single, they each had more personal freedom (agreed?), but they chose to form a union, which brought more security and pleasure than the personal freedoms they left behind.
I was thinking of this happening indirectly. I assume you're familiar with PMI and its requirement to be paid when the owner has less than 20% equity.
Let's say someone had 25% equity and the value of their property dropped such that the owner only had 19% equity after the drop. It is conceivable that someone could be spending everything he makes just to get by and an additional monthly charge in the form of PMI could be the straw that broke the camel's back.
Back to the question: let's say I know that dropping the value of your property will hurt you (financially or otherwise), and I act in ways to drop the value of your property. Am I using force against you?
I say "yes" because you have been forced to do something you would not otherwise have. It may be more difficult, but it is surely possible for one to operate within the rules of the game to get another to bend to your will. A simplified example of this is a game of chess.
OK, but the fact that they haven't been held accountable doesn't mean that they cannot be.
To answer your question, I'd strongly tend to believe the government is to blame. But, if you replace "raspberry" with "alcohol" and ask the same question, I'd tend to say that alcohol producers are to blame (because I'd agree alcohol isn't a necessity).
Regardless, let's get back to the original question: is it possible for a small group to affect a larger group without government? Yes.
Let's go back to my married couple example, and let's say they have children. It is entirely possible for one parent to, say, gamble away a paycheck and screw things up for the whole family.
Or, let's say a CEO makes a bad bet on future directions in the market and is forced to lay off employees when the market moves in an opposite direction. It surely doesn't take government to screw things up for a larger population (even if they usually do!).
OK - but what such society currently exists? If one does exist, how large is it? Can it thrive with, say, one million people living in that society?
No, you chose to take a profession in medicine and focus on that entirely. If others in society don't want to purchase your services, you are free to make other choices, such as hunt or farm for your own food. While this may not sound very appealing, in practical terms, you'd have to be a jerk of enormous proportions if you were good at what you did and everyone shunned you anyway.
In society as we know it, there is. We live under the premise of a social contract, to which everyone is born with an obligation to be sacrificed to some degree for the benefit of others that are perceived as being more needy.
But if we're talking about a free society, then the only costs are those of voluntary consumption. I may choose to pay for someone else to grow my food instead of growing it myself, for instance.
Before answering this, I'd like to clarify the term "freedom" (or "freedoms"). You seem to be using it generically to mean "the ability to do whatever one wants." I would qualify that by adding "...as long as force is not initiated against anyone else." When you say that the individuals in a marriage had more "freedoms" when single, I assume you're referring to things like dating other people, making financial decisions independently, that sort of thing. But I would contend that freedom is not quantified by the number of things we're allowed to do.
In a marriage contract, it's common for the terms to include that the two remain faithful to each other. Both people still have their same rights; that is, to take any action so long as force is not initiated against anyone else (in the case of infidelity, breech of contract). There are certain specific actions that people do give up, so I agree with what I think you're trying to say in this instance, but I would not call that conceding freedom.
Back to the question: let's say I know that dropping the value of your property will hurt you (financially or otherwise), and I act in ways to drop the value of your property. Am I using force against you?
I say "yes" because you have been forced to do something you would not otherwise have. It may be more difficult, but it is surely possible for one to operate within the rules of the game to get another to bend to your will. A simplified example of this is a game of chess.
I would say that this is not force. Let's say that you and I were neighbors and both had our houses for sale. Let's say that in order to assist in selling my house, I increase the curb appeal with a fresh coat of paint and other superficial improvements. Because of this, potential buyers are more attracted to my house than to yours, which causes you to have to lower your asking price to get people interested. This has cost you a quantifiable amount of money. Have I initiated force against you?
The problem is that in both your case and mine, I haven't done any damage to your property. Arguing that I have initiated force against you not only doesn't work philosophically, but it doesn't work practically either. It's far too subjective allowing neighbors to sue each other for damage because they're increasing the value and attractiveness of their own homes.
My home has lost about $100k in value over the last year. Has someone initiated force against me? Who can I sue?
I own my home, not the value of my home, so I am not entitled to any particular value. So if I lose value, nothing that is mine has been stolen from me. All I own is the physical property, whose value may change on a whim. Value can increase or decrease for any number of reasons, most of which are unintended. Home values often increase very little with superficial remodeling, most home value changes are due to changes in the market, not because of some intentional action on the part of a home owner or his neighbors.
Given that there is very little incentive for most people to hold them accountable, they likely will not be any time soon on any large scale.
So you think the government is to blame only because raspberries are more of a necessity than alcohol?
Of course. A relatively small group of people at Microsoft have affected much of the world.
It's possible only because one spouse gives up their rights to control their property, or they choose to combine their property such that it's jointly owned. There is a prerequisite of an agreement for this to happen.
No, of course not. I don't think I'm claiming that people's actions can affect other peoplpe.