And I was using Jefferson's quote to illustrate that exceptions to property rights are not needed. It is what I would call an inconvenience of "too much liberty."
I understood your intent, but Jefferson used words such as "rather" and "too much" and "too little." He leaves open the possibility of choosing a different course of action when the cost outweighs the benefit.
Why? Because your intentionally malicious actions (by your admission) caused the general public to have a negative view of you and decide to not interact with you?
It doesn't matter whether maliciousness was intended or not - it depends how the public perceived my (in)action. In any case, you didn't answer my question: are we not slaves to society?
I believe I already successfully argued that there is a cost associated with living in a society, but here's another argument: let's take the simplest form of society: two people. Let's examine a two person society: a married couple. To live together, they must be willing to make concessions to the other. When single, they each had more personal freedom (
agreed?), but they chose to form a union, which brought more security and pleasure than the personal freedoms they left behind.
I don't borrow money (anymore). However, I've purchased (and sold) a lot of real-estate, as well as other items on credit in the past. I have never heard of a lender having such thing as a minimum equity requirement. People are upside down in loans all the time, and they don't lose their property because of that fact, they lose their property because they stop making their payments. Additionally, it wouldn't make sense for a bank to repossess something because the value of it fell.. what would they do with it? If it's less than what's owed, they can't sell it for what they're owed.
I was thinking of this happening indirectly. I assume you're familiar with PMI and its requirement to be paid when the owner has less than 20% equity. Let's say someone had 25% equity and the value of their property dropped such that the owner only had 19% equity after the drop. It is conceivable that someone could be spending everything he makes just to get by and an additional monthly charge in the form of PMI could be the straw that broke the camel's back.
Back to the question: let's say I know that dropping the value of your property will hurt you (financially or otherwise), and I act in ways to drop the value of your property. Am I using force against you?
I say "yes" because you have been forced to do something you would not otherwise have. It may be more difficult, but it is surely possible for one to operate within the rules of the game to get another to bend to your will. A simplified example of this is a game of chess.
He's more the exception than the rule. The hundreds of Congressmen and Senators that empowered government agencies with further abilities to initiate force when they voted for the Patriot Act comes to mind.
OK, but the fact that they haven't been held accountable doesn't mean that they cannot be.
Their actions were a result of the Federal Reserve's monetary policies.
If the government's policy is to provide food for people who can't afford it, they may do this by issuing food stamps to someone who makes below a certain annual wage/salary. If restrictions are put on how food stamps can be used, such that they can be used to purchase only food items that the government deems "necessary".. for instance, they may say you can purchase strawberries but not raspberries. Just because someone makes below a certain amount doesn't mean they can't afford food, but government wants to "make sure" by issuing food stamps to them. Now that they can have strawberries for free, they're less likely to buy raspberries even if they were purchasing them before.
Do you blame the decline of raspberry sales (and the decrease in revenue to raspberry farmers) on the success of strawberry farmers, or on the government?
To answer your question, I'd strongly tend to believe the government is to blame. But, if you replace "raspberry" with "alcohol" and ask the same question, I'd tend to say that alcohol producers are to blame (because I'd agree alcohol isn't a necessity).
However, I do not see how this relates to the ratings agencies.
Regardless, let's get back to the original question: is it possible for a small group to affect a larger group without government? Yes. Let's go back to my married couple example, and let's say they have children. It is entirely possible for one parent to, say, gamble away a paycheck and screw things up for the whole family. Or, let's say a CEO makes a bad bet on future directions in the market and is forced to lay off employees when the market moves in an opposite direction. It surely doesn't take government to screw things up for a larger population (even if they usually do!

).