MattintheCrown
Member
- Joined
- Mar 29, 2012
- Messages
- 154
A lot better than using microeconomics would, LOL.How is that working out for us, Matt?
Oh lawd. Here we go...There is no "the economy".
Yeah, so anyhow, Macroeconomics is what we use to analyze tax policy.That's a blanket term used to hide the artificially selected winners and losers in statist-distorted micro-economies. Whenever you see terms like "the economy" and "economy-wide", think whose. Always. If you and I comprised "the whole economy", and I owned half the wealth and you owned the other half, I could slit your throat and assume ownership of your half, and "the overall impact on the economy", which you say is all that matters, is a zero sum gain, since 100% of "the economy" is still there and doing just fine. If you say that "the economy" has lost your productivity in the process, I will say that is not even a problem, let alone a minor one, as "the economy" can recover from the loss of you just fine by making superior substitutions, as I can always bring others into "the economy" to make up for that. I can say that one individual needed to go "for the greater good", because after all, Matt, the overall impact on the economy is all that matters, right?
At the individual level, landowners lose the rent of their land.Reasoning at the individual level(s) is the ONLY way to get the full picture. Not blurring millions of microeconomic pictures into one nebulous, collectivized shape-shifting blob with no regard for the individual.
No need.Change "is" to "was", and you will be correct. By definition.
The supply of a given quantity? The supply of land is fixed. You can continue to talk nonsense, or accept the fact and move on.You are referring to the "stock", or overall inventory of land on Earth. The actual supply of a given quantity of land is determined by the price that sellers are both able and willing to sell. The number of sellers is always finite for any given price, and is never all-inclusive of all owners, since some have no price. OR, you can plot their price, for their quantity, at "infinity".
No, you just neglected present and future tenses.There, I fixed it for you for greater accuracy.So what? All landiswas sold at some price, and therefore all landcountsonce counted as supply for that time at that given price.
Oh please. You'll just go to any lengths to avoid the point, won't you?I wouldn't be so arrogant or presumptuous as to answer for someone else either way.
Not really, because we know the tree exists. It will trade for some price. We don't know the price, but under all but the most exceptional of circumstances, it will trade for a fairly predictable price, based on rational behavior of market participants. That's what economic models exist for.To know the answer to that question, you would have to actually make such offer, to see whether or not that particular individual was WILLING to sell at that particular price (thus making it part of supply at that price, for that particular time), wouldn't you?
No, that is false. The supply is fixed.Gibberish. There is absolutely nothing real world or meaningful about what you just wrote.Land, being fixed in supply, just sits there and exist regardless of how much people are willing to pay for it.
Land that is already owned just sits there alright...as each landowner's possession. Buyers' desire, as a function of ability and and willingness to pay for a given quantity of land is nothing more than a finite spectrum of specific buyers and specific bid prices on the demand side. They don't control the supply. PROOF: If a given prospective buyer offers .25 cents, he will quickly learn that the supply (available to him), for that price, is a finite quantity - fixed for that price. Since supply is a function of willingness of an owner to sell a given quantity at a given price), the supply of land at .25 cents is likely to be ZERO.
Now, keep increasing the bid upward from .25 cents, and eventually MORE SUPPLY (the quantity which some owners will become willing sellers at that given price) will increase.
The supply is whatever land actually is made available by owners-who-choose-to-become-sellers, of a given quantity, at a given bid price. The past market price (always in the past) MIGHT serve as a guide for both buyers and sellers, but it does not dictate the future "market price" for a given parcel of land to either of them. The New Market Price (of that parcel) is not established until an owner is willing to sell and a buyer is willing to buy, and ONLY at a point where the supply and demand prices equal one another.
Of course they do. A 5 year old could tell you that. In fact, anyone who hasn't consciously chosen to refuse to know what supply is could tell you that. This is really, really simple stuff. We're not talking about some complex concept here. The only reason you're having trouble is that you realize the implication of the fact that land is fixed in supply is troubling to your world view (and you have so much invested in opposing it, and would feel rather silly conceding defeat on the point now).Nice slippery "planted for production" qualification. What is utterly bizarre (albeit consistent with how you think) is that you would automatically think they do constitute supply.
That's just false. Consider, instead of trees, buildings. A nation is rapidly advancing, and people are building homes and businesses. An economist would say that the nation was becoming more wealthy, and that the supply of buildings was increasing. The buildings not need to be placed on a realtor's website to be part of supply: their existence constitutes supply, period.A man plants and cultivates an orchard of walnut trees on ten acres of land. The only "supply" from that orchard is whatever quantity of a thing that the owner demonstrates (or declares) he is willing to make available to the market at a given price. It is not the trees, but only the fruits therefrom. The trees (and the orchard/land itself even) MIGHT be considered supply on their own, as part of a different market. But we wouldn't know that unless a) the owner offered the trees/wood/land/etc., for sale (i.e., did become a seller, by definition), or b) an offer was made and accepted by the owner, and/or c) a counter-offer of a different asking price was made. Until then, we have not established a specific "supply" for anything but the walnuts that are already being supplied.
Its the current system that manipulates the economy: systematic privilege for landowners.That's your collectivist, economies-manipulating geoinsanity speaking.
Actually, I said they don't if they want to stay in business. And you can see how Dubai has proved me right.Hardly. You are the one who made the claim that people don't just invest hundreds of millions of dollars into skyscrapers hoping that something would eventually happen. Dubai proved you absolutely wrong on that point.
But your point rested on it working. You offered it as a strategy. I countered, explaining it doesn't work that way. It's just a means for going broke is the vast majority of circumstances.They can, and do. I didn't say it was a good idea, or even that it would work for them. Their risk, their reward. You're the only one who gives a shit about that, as you are the only one between us that has a desire to manipulate whole economies through state arrogation of rents for an entire factor of production. Not me.
No, not really.Yes, just like most Americans use debauched fiat currency, and for some strange reason, don't save. Hmmmm...
Blah blah blah. By this "reasoning" there isn't a single homeowner in the US, right now.Bullshit. It would make buying them, not owning them, cheaper. By design. Something that is "bought" can actually be "paid for". In full. Under LVT, the concept of "owning them" is not "cheaper, because it is not ownership at all. That concept is fully distorted, as it can NEVER be bought and paid for in full. Thus, "ownership" is nothing but a rental, as the cost of "ownership" imposed by the tax, as a condition of "ownership", is tantamount to a rental fee for usage only, paid to the state - the entity you want permanently enthroned as the ultimate owner under a geocommunist regime.
Nope. Because under LVT, instead of paying taxes to the government, and then paying a landowner for access to what your taxes just paid for, you simply pay the government once. Your burden is halved. And again, land is allocated more effectively, reducing prices for pretty much all forms of wealth, including dwellings.That's where you went completely goofy-loopy, and completely blind. Under LVT, people would still pay for improvements, just like now. Those can be paid for in full, just like now. Their "payment for land" would be a tax shift of all taxes, as they are shifted to LVT, and paid in perpetuity. They would pay less interest on the dwellings, even as the land itself is treated exactly like an interest-only, variable interest rate loan -- the worst and most predatory of all loans, because there is absolutely no path to ownership, no ability to escape the artificial treadmill imposed, no control over the "interest rate" (the actual mill rate multiplier of the assessed land value), and no economic security that comes from true ownership. For anyone. So no, whatever principle and interest they no longer pay to a previous owner is more than made up for on crack in perpetual interest payments to the state.
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