Our physics does proceed on majority vote. We decide science by consensus.
No, it doesn't - and no, we don't.
In science, "consensus" manifests as a
consequent,
not as an antecedent.
Scientific "consensus" is supposed to be the
effect of greater dispositivity (e.g., withstanding falsification attempts),
not the source or cause of it.
In politics, however, "consensus" manifests as an
antecedent,
not as a consequent.
Political "consensus" is alleged to be the
source or cause of greater dispositivity (e.g., "majority rules"),
not the effect of it.
In other words, the operation of "consensus" in (democratic) politics is contrariwise to its operation in science - and thus, any attempt to defend the former by reference to the latter is a fallacious equivocation.
To be fair, you did at least indirectly indicate that you may be aware of this:
Equating politics, which is subjective by it's very nature, to science is pretty silly.
But what seems to have been the ultimate source of this whole digression on the subject of science and consensus are the following statements:
Believe it or not, over half the country holds an entirely different opinion than you do on this topic.
So you're fine with holding up what 95% of the country wants just because you want something else?
Given these statements, in conjunction with your acknowledgement that politics "is subjective by its very nature," it is not clear why you seem to expect that invocations of what opinion "over half the country holds" (or of "what 95% of the country wants") should be taken as an effective counter against those who do not regard politcial "consensus" to be dispositive. And what is more, it is especially strange for you to invoke such simplistic majoritarianism while
also citing Constitutional intent in order to criticize and denounce those who would seek to thwart an Obama SCOTUS nomination - the Constitution, after all, was intended to be a bulwark
against just that kind of simplistic majoritarianism ...)