Some people here seem to be confused as to what the Judge is saying and why it is a legitimate argument.
First, when the Judge says the amendment is "unconstitutional," he doesn't just mean it's a bad idea. The Judge also thinks the 16th is a bad idea, but he doesn't call it "unconstitutional" (even though many people have doubt as to whether or not it was validly ratified). When he says the 17th is unconstitutional, that's actually what he means.
Second, the Judge is not saying that the 17th amendment is unconstitutional just because it violates original intent; if that were true, no amendment would be valid, but Article V clearly allows for amendments.
Here is the basic premise: the Constitution is a compact (i.e., contract) amongst the States and the people of the several States. The Judge is probably saying something like that it is illegitimate under historic contract law (be it natural law or common law) for a contract to be fundamentally undermined without the consent of all parties. The amending power of Article V was intended to deal with things like increases or decreases in power, other policy issues, etc., not to be able to fundamentally undermine and usurp the foundational principles upon which the contract was enacted; to change those things would require the consent of all parties (possibly through the creation of a different Constitution, i.e., a new contract).
Because the States as sovereign political entities were integral to the formation of the Constitution, and the defense of their sovereignty and inclusion in the federal government (by sending senators as their representatives) was an essential component of the entire constitutional structure, it was unconstitutional and hence illegitimate to use the amending power to remove the representation of the sovereign States (as political entities) from Congress.
Furthermore, to go beyond what the Judge basically seems to be saying, it is self-evident that the amending power is not unlimited; Article V even lists two specific things that could not be amended (one of which had a date limit on it, regarding the importation of slaves). The other thing that could not be amended is that "no State, without its Consent, shall be deprived of its equal Suffrage in the Senate." The Constitution clearly says that no amendment could ever be passed that would deprive any State of its equal suffrage in the Senate without its consent.
What did "State" mean in that context during the 1780's? When speaking of senatorial representation, it meant state government, because it was state governments that were represented and hence had suffrage in the Senate. And when the Constitution says "equal suffrage," it's highly unlikely that the ratifiers and general public would have understood that to mean that no suffrage at all was acceptable. But the 17th amendment took away all senatorial suffrage from every state government. However, not every state legislature that was in the union in 1913 (there were 48) consented to the amendment. Thus, those states which did not consent were deprived of their suffrage rights in the Senate. Thus, the 17th amendment is unconstitutional.
In addition, there are also a number of discrepancies in the actual ratification process of the 17th. The article at
[url]http://www.devvy.com/new_site/17th_amendment_docs_march_2010.html[/URL] provides a good general overview.
This is not just a theoretical issue; we're talking about usurpation on a grand scale. If the 17th amendment is unconstitutional, then all senators elected under its authority hold office illegitimately. That would mean that essentially everything the federal government has done for almost the past 100 years (all laws, treaties, appointment confirmations, subsequent constitutional amendments, etc.) have been unconstitutional because all of those things require Senate approval.