TheCount
Member
- Joined
- Mar 15, 2014
- Messages
- 11,740
The title says exactly what FRN's are for, and who is authorized to use them. Its also in the federal reserve act.
No, the law does not say that. The law says that the only thing that the Federal Reserve Board can do with FRNs that they issue is advance them to reserve banks. This was to encourage banks to become reserve banks by preventing the Fed from directly using the FRNs. The Fed must route the FRNs through the reserve banks, which guarantees profits for those banks. It doesn't limit what banks and people can do with them.
The very next sentence says that FRNs are receivable by "all national and member banks" and for "for all taxes, customs, and other public dues." First, reserve banks don't pay taxes. Second, how would the national and member banks (which are not all reserve banks) receive the FRNs if a) they are not authorized to use them and b) the reserve banks are not allowed to spend them? What logical sense does this sentence make if what you believe is true? Who is paying taxes with the FRNs if the only people authorized to use FRNs are exempt?
(Side note: if your theory is right and everyone is a reserve bank, then nobody has to pay taxes. Instead, your theory is that you need to not be a reserve bank to not pay taxes, which is actually backwards. Hilariously.)
All I said was that the term person, is a legal fiction which is called a corporate person who is a citizen/ subject. All the laws pertain to them , not human beings. They are definitely two separate beings.
There is nothing about this that is true. It's one of the oldest sovcit theories and a nonstop loser in court. I'd rather focus on the whole FRN thing, though.