osan said:
The very nature of the transaction in which property is acquired must be entered into explicitly and voluntarily. Neither of these conditions are required in the "ownership" of common property in the sense we are here discussing.
The public has given consent, both in the electing of representatives to which we delegate power to (delegation being that same thing by which you give someone else the power of attorney), and by not electing representatives to undo what has been done.
This is implied consent and it is bullshit where governance is concerned, especially when that governance is corrupt. I can speak only for myself in say that I have given no such consent to any other human being at any time in my life for any purpose whatsoever to govern me - neither explicitly nor implicitly. Furthermore, I have many times very explicitly made notice that I reserve all my rights at all times, surrendering them never for any reason whatsoever. This is sufficient to disprove your assertion of tacit consent by "the people", which does some considerable damage to your argument... unless of course my reservation of rights means nothing in your view, in which case a whole new can of worms opens wide for our examination.
Just as if I hire a man to help me on my farm, if he uses my money to purchase a tractor for the task I have given him, it is my tractor. If I do not return the tractor or instruct him to return it, but I receive it from him and I proceed to utilize it, it is incontestably my own purchase.
Private ownership. Different from "public". In your example, all transactions have proceeded presumably with consent. The same presumption of universal consent cannot be made in the case of public assets. Why do those not giving consent appear to have unequal rights in your view, as I construe them from your writing?
If I would have rejected that tractor, and not continued to utilize it once I was presented with the purchase of the tractor. Execution of the contract may happen both voluntarily and with consent after the sale. It does not need to precede the sale.
No idea what it is you are saying here.
osan said:
Corporations are synthetic legal entities. Their rights are conferred not naturally, as is the case with humans, but artificially through legislative instruments. Corporate ownership is not simple as is that by individual humans. It is a compound consideration in that there are two aspects, the first being that of "direct" corporate ownership of a given asset, and that the legally indirect ownership of that same asset by the owners of the corporation. That a corporation's ownership of property is treated more or less equally as that of an individual human being, it does not follow that the two are the same. They are functionally equivalent, but the former is synthetically contrived, whereas the latter is an inherent quality of a living, breathing being.
Umm, did you really say anything one way or the other about corporate ownership except say it's different (in an undefined way)?
Yes, I did. I not only made the assertion, but described the anatomy of the difference.
osan said:
Sure do. Individuals are not able to exercise proper ownership rights in such cases and cannot sell their interests. This directly demonstrates that their "ownership" is not really ownership at all.
I fail to see how that demonstrates anything at all,
Without consent, there is no legitimacy to the assertion of ownership. Those who consent may be said to be co-owners... maybe. What of the rest? How is it that one subset of the population is justified in declaring joint-ownership of an asset to which the rest could make similar claims? What grant of authority do they hold to declare "this is ours in THIS WAY, for THESE PURPOSES, and if you want in you must toe our line"? This is one implication of public ownership. Another is that even those not giving explicit consent still give it implicitly. yet another is that even those who explicitly deny consent still consent. This is the thin veil of bald-faced force being applied to those who do not consent to the conditions set forth by a subset of the population who hold no inherent authority to impose such conditions upon the rest.
In other words, it is all arbitrary bullshit that is foisted by one set of humans upon all regardless of consent status of any given person. None of this is morally justifiable in any universally human manner.
Yes, you cannot necessarily withdraw a portion of the corporate property if you withdraw personally from the corporation. That is because, contractually, the decisions of what to do with that property belong to the body of the corporation, by whatever contractual method they have set up for themselves before creating or enjoining the corporation (or afterwards as their contract permits).
And here you make my very point. It is CONTRACTUAL. There is sufficient agreement by
all parties to ownership such that a legitimate contract comes into effect. This is fundamentally different from "tiny subset of population imposes arbitrary conditions of ownership upon the rest with or without consent." The fact that ownership is imposed on anyone is ridiculous on its face. It is loosely similar to Obama's healthcare bill that effectively imposes ownership of insurance upon every citizen of the nation.
osan said:
I have not signed any contract of this supposed "ownership". I am, therefore, not bound by the tyranny of the majority.
Is it or is it not your property? If it is not your property then you may NOT do with it as you please.
I never said nor implied that I could. Not sure what point you are trying to make, given this false characterization of my position.
If you have been granted, by the owner or a delegate of the owner of that property, the privilege of utility, you are STILL bound by their terms.
No joke. That is not the issue at hand. The issue upon which the questions at hand hinge
in toto is that of ownership, which you have not established. If you can establish such ownership with sufficiency, then I will be obliged to agree with you on all points. You have yet to come even within the ballpark of proof. If you can, by all means do. My mind is open.
osan said:
Yes, but these are essentially contractual rights because they are bestowed and administered governmentally. Unlike basic human rights, which are inherent and immutable, corporate rights may be modified through legislation and even policy. I hope the profound difference between these is not lost on you.
Not at all. But the right to determine what is done to their property or who may use it and under what contractual terms the property may be used is fundamentally the same.
Assuming you establish ownership where all parties have entered voluntarily. Being born in Anywhere, USA does not automagically oblige you to live by the arbitrary contractual dictates of the rest of the townspeople.
The concept of ownership fails where the commons is concerned.
osan said:
I have no "disrespect" for so-called public ownership. I question the very validity of the concept
Ok, pardon me. It's not disrespect, it's disregard.
Your continued misconstruing of my words seems to indicate either some obtuse qualtiy or disingenuous intentions. I do not see how I can say "apples" so many times, yet have you quote me as having said "oranges" any other way.
In conclusion:
You assert that, in a corporation, certain property rights are lost?
Never said nor implied by any stretch such a thing. You also appear to purposely ignore my explicit differentiation between private and public corporate conditions. The two are fundamentally different. One is legitimate and the other is not - again unless you accept the legitimacy of the use of force and violence by one set of citizens against another where no crimes have been committed.
Please list. Explain which function deprives that corporation of rights. Do these rights, the incontestable privileges of utility, go to someone else or are they completely lost? Can rights really be lost?
I will write this once more and no more: corporate rights are synthetic, not inherent and basic as with human beings. They are contractual. They are granted by government. They are alterable by government. They are deniable by government.
Clear?
Remember, corporations were being formed long before laws came about to define them. They do have natural rights, of which these laws later erected may or may not support.
Your proof of this is...