TER
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Read the passages:
Thank you Eduardo.
FF, if the weight of your evidence rests on your post above you should reconsider your argument.
Read the passages:
Read the passages:
Notice the parts you left out.
Acts 16:34 - He rejoiced, having believed in God, with all his household.
1 Corinthians 16:15 - The household of Stephanus devoted themselves to the ministry of the saints.
You can't make those very same households include infants too young to demonstrate that they had faith when it talks about them being baptized.
Infant baptism is an innovation that came up in the third century. I prefer to stick with the practice of the apostolic Church.
Where do those verses exclude the children and infants from being baptised?
If it's an innovation that came up in the third century, then why did Hippolytus write about in 215 when talking about traditions of the Church of the 2nd century and before?
You're talking about a work called "the Apostolic Traditions." This is a very complicated work. Some of it comes from Hippolytus, some of it doesn't. I don't know whether the part about baptism does or not, or if there's a reliable way to tell. But even if it does, that doesn't mean that it's talking about older traditions than his own day.
It was written in hopes of preserving older traditions, not those of his days.
Why did Irenaeus speak of infant baptism in Against Heresies which dates back to 180?
Why do we find absolutely no writings denouncing or chastising infant baptism?
Infant baptism is an innovation that came up in the third century.
He didn't.
St. Irenaeus was the disciple of St. Polycarp, who was the disciple of the Apostle John himself (as well as an associate of the Apostle Philip). And, in AD 155, St. Polycarp said this at his execution:
"Polycarp declared, 'Eighty and six years have I served Him, and He never did me injury. How can I blaspheme my King and Savior?" (Polycarp, Martyrdom of Polycarp 9 c. AD 156)
Now, it is well documented that "The Martyrdom of Polycarp" was written the year after the saint's execution; and so the quote above is extremely reliable. It is also well documented that Polycarp was 86 years old at the time of his death. Therefore, if the saint claims to have served Jesus for 86 years, it therefore follows that he was Baptized as an infant. And, in another place, we are told that Polycarp was Baptized by none other than the Apostle John!Therefore, at least in the case of St. John, we can show conclusively that the Apostles Baptized infants.
http://www.philvaz.com/apologetics/a26.htm
"And both men and women who have been Christ's disciples since infancy, remain pure, and at the age of sixty or seventy years ..." (Justin Martyr, First Apology,15:6 -- AD 110-165)
How do you explain away that?
With self-induced blindness, voluntary ignorance, and mental gymnastics.
How are infants reborn in Christ if not through baptism?
How are infants reborn in Christ if not through baptism?
My own answer for me is, I don't know.
I also don't know Irenaeus's answer. He doesn't say anything about them being baptized. If he were a later author writing at a time when that belief of infants being reborn through baptism were known, then we could assume he meant that. But he wasn't.
There also this:
St. Irenaeus was the disciple of St. Polycarp, who was the disciple of the Apostle John himself (as well as an associate of the Apostle Philip). And, in AD 155, St. Polycarp said this at his execution:
"Polycarp declared, 'Eighty and six years have I served Him, and He never did me injury. How can I blaspheme my King and Savior?" (Polycarp, Martyrdom of Polycarp 9 c. AD 156)
Now, it is well documented that "The Martyrdom of Polycarp" was written the year after the saint's execution; and so the quote above is extremely reliable. It is also well documented that Polycarp was 86 years old at the time of his death. Therefore, if the saint claims to have served Jesus for 86 years, it therefore follows that he was Baptized as an infant. And, in another place, we are told that Polycarp was Baptized by none other than the Apostle John!Therefore, at least in the case of St. John, we can show conclusively that the Apostles Baptized infants.
http://www.philvaz.com/apologetics/a26.htm
How do you explain away that?
Or what about this, from the 2nd century:
St. Justin Martyr:
"And both men and women who have been Christ's disciples since infancy, remain pure, and at the age of sixty or seventy years ..." (Justin Martyr, First Apology,15:6 -- AD 110-165)
My own answer for me is, I don't know.
By the third century the Christian Church was composed of five patriarchates
How humble. Yet you know that Irenaeus wrote in a time when infant baptism was not practiced. How nice. And with no evidence to support your claim. How very convincing.
What I'm saying is that we can't interpret his words on the assumption that they were written when it was practiced, and then turn around and claim that they are evidence that it was.
No it wasn't.
It was composed of millions of individual people and individual assemblies. Some of these assemblies were united with one another in larger overarching hierarchies. Others weren't. There was no worldwide structure dividing them all into 5 patriarchates.
He doesn't need to explicitly say the word baptism. There is no other way in which we are reborn in Christ. Regeneration happens through baptism. Are you saying that the Church did not believe that in Irenaeus' time? If so, please show some evidence for that.
Can you also explain this:
And can you show evidence that infant baptism just sprung up randomly in the 3rd century, addressing the points TER made in his last post? Can you show any sources denouncing infant baptism in the early Church? Or any evidence showing that baptism was limited to adults?