I think you are contradicting yourself a little here, so let's interpret scripture with Scripture.
Not at all. 2 Kings 5:27 is clear and needs no further interpretation. God struck Gehazi with a punishment that was passed onto his children. You claim I'm "contradicting myself" but in your response you have not even addressed 2 Kings 5:27. What are you afraid of? Admitting you are wrong? Because you are. It is laughable that you claim I'm ignoring scripture and say I'm "contradicting myself" without even asserting what the contradiction is, and yet totally ignore the text I brought up.
Just so you can be clear that there is no contradiction, my position,
and the Biblical position, is that God does indeed sometime allow, or even in the case of Gehazi's children
cause earthly punishment on people because of their parents' sinful acts. Where the disciples erred biblically is the same way that you err. The disciples erred when they asked "Did this man sin or did his parents sin to cause him to be born blind". It is
impossible for a baby to commit some act in utero to bring down the wrath of God upon himself. It is quite possible for a parent to bring down punishment on himself or herself that affects the newborn or even the unborn child, though in the case of John 9 neither was responsible. Do you realize there were likely pregnant women in Sodom and Gomorrah? When God's wrath came down, they suffered the same earthly punishment as their parents. So your vain attempt to twist Ezekiel 18:20 away from its original meaning just doesn't fly. It's clear that children have died the first death (the physical death) due to the sins of their parents. So Ezekiel 18:20 can only be talking about the second death or the "spiritual" death. I don't believe the second death lasts forever anyway, but whether or not it does, it doesn't apply to children too young to have committed a sin themselves. As for what the "cut off age is" that is irrelevant. God is smart enough to figure that out on a case by case basis. The only duty of the parent is to "Train up a child in the way he should go" and not worry about things like age of accountability.
Explain to me Romans 5:12, 19: "Therefore, just as sin came into the world through one man, and death came through sin, and so death spread to all because all have sinned; For just as by the one man’s disobedience the many were made sinners, so by the one man’s obedience the many will be made righteous."
A sinner is someone prone to sin. And yes, by one man's disobedience we have all been made prone to sin. As soon as a sperm fertilizes an egg, that newly created being has the same genetic predispositions to sin as did his parents. That's being "born in sin". As he develops in his mothers womb if she smokes he smokes. If she drinks he drinks. If she is angry, he feels it. That's being shaped in iniquity. All of this happens before having a conscious thought and before transgressing any law.
But you also need to read the entire chapter of Romans 5.
Romans 5:13 For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
And when is there no law?
Romans 7:7-9
7 What shall we say then? Is the law sin? God forbid. Nay, I had not known sin, but by the law: for I had not known lust, except the law had said, Thou shalt not covet.
8 But sin, taking occasion by the commandment, wrought in me all manner of concupiscence. For without the law sin was dead.
9 For I was alive without the law once: but when the commandment came, sin revived, and I died.
Note Paul said he was
alive before he knew the law! God holds us accountable for what we
know. Now it's true that God reveals aspects of His law through nature so people who didn't have the law given to Moses were and are still without excuse. (Romans 2:14) But even that doesn't apply to someone who hasn't even made it out of his mothers womb yet.
Now back to Romans 5:12 and 19. Again we were all made sinners. And again we were all made subject to the
first death regardless of whether we live long enough to sin. (Clearly a stillborn baby was subject to the first death because by definition he's already experienced it.) The first death is the penalty we all must pay for Adam's sin unless we are translated. The question is, does the mere fact that this child is a descendant of Adam make him subject to the
second death? The second death is when we pay for
our own sin!
Revelation 22:12 And, behold, I come quickly; and my reward is with me, to give every man according as his work shall be.
Every mainstream Christian denomination on the planet understands that while grace is a gift, punishment is earned.
Romans 6:23 For the wages of sin is death; but the gift of God is eternal life through Jesus Christ our Lord.
So in your theology, how much punishment in hell does a stillborn get? Is he burned for all of Adam's sins even though Adam gets off scot free? Why stop at Adam? Does his punishment include the sins for all of his ancestors on down the line? There is
no way to square such a theology with the Bible. Everywhere in scripture it is clear that the punishment sinners receive in the final judgement is based on what
they did.
I want to tease something out, so if you care answering a simple question:
Before I answer your question I must first demand that you address 2 Kings 5:27. I've seen this pattern before. Some people never truly answer the questions or Bible verses posed to them, then throw some other irrelevant question at the person they are debating with. If you think I have 2 Kings 5:27 wrong and that God didn't actually punish Gehazi
and his descendants with leprosy, then please explain what you believe happened.
If babies do not go to hell because as best you know they have no sins to be judged by, how about a fully grown person in the countryside of Thailand where the gospel was never preached? By accident of birth, is he damned? How does God judge someone who was not taught the gospel and would not have cultural and educational background to find the gospel even coherent if he were just to hear it in passing changing channels on the radio? How, in your mind, is an otherwise good man like this judged?
How can you be a Calvinist and you haven't read Romans 2?
Romans 2:14-16
14 For when the Gentiles, which have not the law, do by nature the things contained in the law, these, having not the law, are a law unto themselves:
15 Which shew the work of the law written in their hearts, their conscience also bearing witness, and their thoughts the mean while accusing or else excusing one another
16 In the day when God shall judge the secrets of men by Jesus Christ according to my gospel.
Someone in Thailand is judged according to the law God has revealed to that person. People in Thailand know that it's wrong to steal, kill etc. Their civil laws and even their religious laws reflect that. And even if external society is so corrupt that religious and civil law requires you to do evil, their is still the effect of the Holy Spirit revealing to someone through nature that "this is wrong" or "that is wrong". Here is how Paul explained this in Acts 17.
29 “Therefore since we are God’s offspring, we should not think that the divine being is like gold or silver or stone—an image made by human design and skill. 30 In the past God overlooked such ignorance, but now he commands all people everywhere to repent. 31 For he has set a day when he will judge the world with justice by the man he has appointed. He has given proof of this to everyone by raising him from the dead.”
I don't know why the "What happens to people born in some country where their are not Christians" question is such a stumbling block to Calvinists when Paul makes it clear that God hasn't forgotten those people, that God provided a way for their salvation, and that God doesn't hold what they do in ignorance against them. Paul even went so far as to say that the Greeks were actually worshipping God without knowing it!
Again Acts 17:
22 Paul then stood up in the meeting of the Areopagus and said: “People of Athens! I see that in every way you are very religious. 23 For as I walked around and looked carefully at your objects of worship, I even found an altar with this inscription: to an unknown god. So you are ignorant of the very thing you worship—and this is what I am going to proclaim to you.
So I hope this answers your question and you will no longer believe the falsehood that people who die in some land that had no opportunity to know about Christ must automatically be lost. Paul taught the opposite truth. They have an opportunity for salvation based on the revelation of God that God granted to them and God doesn't hold them accountable for what they didn't know and didn't have the opportunity to know. Since Paul was preaching to them they could no longer claim "ignorance" and were then being called to repent.
But that doesn't mean I'm letting you off the hook for not actually addressing 2 Kings 5:27. If God never gives earthly punishment that is passed down to someone's child, then how do you explain what the Bible says happened to Gehazi?