Keynesian: Wikipedia definition of Fractional Reserve Banking is misleading

RCA

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I just find this first paragraph to be appalling:

"Fractional-reserve banking is the banking practice in which banks keep only a fraction of their demand deposits in reserve (as cash and other highly liquid assets) and lend out the remainder, while maintaining the simultaneous obligation to redeem all demand deposits immediately upon demand. Fractional reserve banking necessarily occurs when banks lend out funds received from demand deposits. This practice is universal in modern banking"

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fractional-reserve_banking
 
I just find this first paragraph to be appalling:

"Fractional-reserve banking is the banking practice in which banks keep only a fraction of their demand deposits in reserve (as cash and other highly liquid assets) and lend out the remainder, while maintaining the simultaneous obligation to redeem all demand deposits immediately upon demand. Fractional reserve banking necessarily occurs when banks lend out funds received from demand deposits. This practice is universal in modern banking"

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Fractional-reserve_banking

What am I missing here?
 
It is saying banks keep a fraction of their deposits and loan the rest of the DEPOSITS. According to the 9:1 ratio, they keep all of their deposits (1) and loan out thin air (9). The wikipedia definition is giving people the illusion that they are still "loaning out other's money" when in reality they create the loans from thin air based on the 9:1 deposit/loan ratio. It seems like Bank Propaganda 101 to me.
 
It is saying banks keep a fraction of their deposits and loan the rest of the DEPOSITS. According to the 9:1 ratio, they keep all of their deposits (1) and loan out thin air (9). The wikipedia definition is giving people the illusion that they are still "loaning out other's money" when in reality they create the loans from thin air based on the 9:1 deposit/loan ratio. It seems like Bank Propaganda 101 to me.

that's the first stage, isnt it?
 
It is saying banks keep a fraction of their deposits and loan the rest of the DEPOSITS. According to the 9:1 ratio, they keep all of their deposits (1) and loan out thin air (9). The wikipedia definition is giving people the illusion that they are still "loaning out other's money" when in reality they create the loans from thin air based on the 9:1 deposit/loan ratio. It seems like Bank Propaganda 101 to me.

No the wiki definition is correct.
 
I guess I'm confused about how the 9:1 ratio works then.
 
I guess I'm confused about how the 9:1 ratio works then.

It happens in stages.

John deposits $100 at a bank
Bank loans $90 to Matt
Matt spends the $90 on a (cheap) suit.
The tailor deposits to $90 he recieved from Matt in the bank
The bank lends out $81 (90% of $90) to Joe

Process continues until eventually the initial $100 deposit is leveraged up 9 times.
 
The definition is correct. I think the key phrase is "while maintaining the simultaneous obligation to redeem all demand deposits immediately upon demand" People's deposits are an liability of the bank. Under a Fractional reserve regime... it can handle the day to day transactions with a 10 percent reserve ratio. 10% of the depositors money is in the form of cash....... 90% is in the form of IOUs from people that got credit and mortgages from the bank.

That is why the banks still fear bank runs...
 
underneath "Benefits of fractional reserve banking" people here should write a "negatives" or "critics" section.
 
"while maintaining the simultaneous obligation to redeem all demand deposits immediately upon demand"

If any demand deposits are loaned out, how exactly are they able to redeem them all immediately upon demand? Magic.
 
Or until someone pays back the money they borrowed.

They are still loaning out a percentage of the deposits they have.
Let's look at the example given.
John deposited $100.
Tailor deposited $90.
Deposits are $190.

Matt borrowed $90.
Joe borrowed $89.
Loans total $179.

They have not loaned out more than their deposits.
 
It doesn't. If the bank is deemed viable with strong balance sheet... the private market might be able to lend it some money if it experiences a bank run.... if not... the Federal Reserve might step in and lend some money... if the bank is just plain crappy... then the FDIC pushes a takeover of some sort..... Something like that.
 
It happens in stages.

John deposits $100 at a bank
Bank loans $90 to Matt
Matt spends the $90 on a (cheap) suit.
The tailor deposits to $90 he recieved from Matt in the bank
The bank lends out $81 (90% of $90) to Joe

Process continues until eventually the initial $100 deposit is leveraged up 9 times.

I was missing this part. I thought the 9:1 was an instant ratio, but 9:1 is achieved after several steps, got it!
 
The wikipedia statement is credible and verifiable. Perhaps you should read The Case Against the Fed.

Now adding something to the end of the wikipedia post that reads like this would sure be fun.

"Fractional reserve banking is legalized embezzlement." with the appropriate citation to The Case Against the Fed.

The Case Against the Fed is on my long list of books to read. I'll have to make it a top priority!
 
Its actually somewhat simple if you break it down to its simplest terms... and assume this is a vacuum and there are no other banks or depositors.
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$100 (in cash) deposited into a bank....

10% is said to be kept in reserve....thus $90 of that $100 is loaned out....(as a check from the bank)

BUT.....the $90 loaned out is not taken from the $100 deposit... it is created out of nothing....why?

Because the original depositor can withdraw funds or write checks on his $100 he just deposited all day long. Yet...supposedly the bank has just loaned $90 of the original $100 out. It's a double claim on the same money...isn't it?

So in this example...lets say the original depositor then withdraws his $100 (in cash) from the bank the day after the $90 loan was made? Does the bank say he can't do it? No, of course not. The bank just gives him his $100 in cash back. Now there is $190 in circulation from the bank....from the $100 originally deposited. Were did the extra $90 come from if it was not created?

The answer is... of course the $90 was created....in checkbook form to the borrower.

"Of course, they [banks] do not really pay out loans from the money they receive as deposits. If they did this, no additional money would be created."

(Modern Money Mechanics last paragraph..page 6)

http://www.scribd.com/doc/3990690/Mo...oney-Mechanics

http://gilliganscorner.wordpress.com/2008/04/04/fractional-reserve-banking-a-primer/


Next...lets suppose the person who received the $90 check goes back to the bank to have it cashed in dollars?.....uh oh... the bank has no cash! Shivers go down the spine of the banker! Bank run...and panic starts! That is why we have a Fed to be a "lender of last resort" to that bank (who would otherwise have to close its doors) in order to keep the charade of money creation in the banks going.

So you may ask...why even have a 10% reserve requirement if a bank can just create check book money? IMHO.. it's designed to obfuscate. The answer is... in many countries with fractional reserve banking they don't have a reserve requirement.

http://www.marketoracle.co.uk/Article9748.html


"Laws requiring banks and other depository institutions to hold a certain fraction of their deposits in reserve, in very safe, secure assets, have been a part of our nation's banking history for many years. The rationale for these requirements has changed over time, however, as the country's financial system has evolved and as knowledge about how reserve requirements affect this system has grown. Before the establishment of the Federal Reserve System, reserve requirements were thought to help ensure the liquidity of bank notes and deposits, particularly during times of financial strains. As bank runs and financial panics continued periodically to plague the banking system despite the presence of reserve requirements, it became apparent that these requirements really had limited usefulness as a guarantor of liquidity. Since the creation of the Federal Reserve System as a lender of last resort, capable of meeting the liquidity needs of the entire banking system, the notion of and need for reserve requirements as a source of liquidity has all but vanished. Instead, reserve requirements have evolved into a supplemental tool of monetary policy, a tool that reinforces the effects of open market operations and discount policy on overall monetary and credit conditions and thereby helps the Federal Reserve to achieve its objectives. - Quoted from FED Bullitin 1993

http://www.federalreserve.gov/monetarypolicy/0693lead.pdf
 
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The money is run through the banks 9 times.

Fractional Reserve banking increases the velocity of money, it doesn't create new money, it just keeps it available.

It is only fraudulent in the sense the the bank calls it safe and politicians don't expect recessions.

Without fractional reserve banking a Loan would cost 20% p.a. instead of 2% p.a. because the bank has to make ten time the profit per dollar loaned. But you don't runs or recessions.

Its a valid trade off. The fraud it not admitting the trade off.

Two good pieces on it:

Reserve Banking

Reserve Banking Follow-Up
 
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Because the original depositor can withdraw funds or write checks on his $100 he just deposited all day long. Yet...supposedly the bank has just loaned $90 of the original $100 out. It's a double claim on the same money...isn't it?

This is not necessarily true either. Don't forget that every time your "90%" scenario happens there is some fixed asset attached to back up the loan. The new money doesn't come from nowhere.

Banks loan out a certain portion of deposits (your examples are 90% but that is hardly true in the real world). It is supposed to make those loans with a lean on the property that the loan is written for, and they are supposed to follow standards so that the property value will not fall below the loan amount.

So no depositor money is lost unless the property (a house for example) falls below the value of the loan and for whatever reason the bank needs to sell.

The major fraud of the last few years is not simply the fact that 90% of deposits can be loaned. The fraud is when those 90% are loaned out to shady borrowers for shady assets with complete disregard for the risk of losing the depositors' money.
 
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