Brian, thank you for your in-depth explanations here. I feel like I'm finally filling the most crucial gaps in my understanding, even if every answer leads to a new question.
You are welcome ... glad I can help.
Wow...the "interest on all reserves" part sounds extraordinarily shady, even by the Fed's standards. It essentially sounds like free money for banks based on how much money they already hold in reserves, which grossly distorts the meaning and purpose of the term "interest."
Yes, it is a method used by central banks to sequester reserves while still providing some incentive for lending/investment. But given the extreme level of bank reserves, the Fed is also using it as a tool to recapitalize the banks. It is the first time the Fed has used it (to my knowledge), but not the first time it has been used by central banks. Obviously it is now being done on an unprecedented scale.
However, I'm now quite confused about something: The fact that interest is paid on all reserves - not just excess reserves or those on deposit with the Fed - seems to defeat the purpose of IOR, because if banks get the "interest" payments from the Fed regardless of how they're using their reserves, doesn't that limit the effectiveness of IOR in regulating interest rates and lending? After all, "interest no matter what, as long as you don't bleed reserves" seems like a poor way of incentivizing any particular lending behavior. Clearly I'm misunderstanding something here...fill me in?
Thank you for asking this question, I was hoping someone would. This illustrates that you are paying close attention and trying to understand what the Fed is doing ... keeping your eye on the ball ... unlike some others that continue to ignorantly argue a position because the truth does not meet their preconceived notions (positions they would like to be true) learned from faulty propaganda/writings. After a while, those folks simply need to visit the ignore list.
#1 Being that the primary goal of the Fed in all of this to recapitalize the banking system, this is more
completely done by paying interest on
all reserves. They also want to keep interest rates low for obvious reasons, which is why they are not paying more than 25 bps and using IOR as the short term market rate.
#2 Paying something on reserves (instead of nothing at all) is still somewhat of a disincentive to lend,
even if that interest is being paid on all reserves. It becomes a decision of whether to sit on those excess reserves and earn 25 bps (play it conservative) ... or invest some excess reserves, thus creating more required reserves (and still earning interest on RR+ER),
but now taking on more risk with the investment. This allows banks to construct a more balanced portfolio with respect to risk (risk management).
#3 Despite the added investment risk noted above, paying interest on all reserves still provides enough incentive to move some of these excess reserves into the economy. The banks cannot survive on 25 bps alone (though it certainly helps) and will look for opportunities to employe
some of those excess reserves (and we can track that directly). Meanwhile, if the Fed paid interest on only excess reserves,
in really hard times it would create the possibility of a liquidity trap as a side effect. It does not want that ... and we are currently nowhere close to that ... despite the opinion of the Seeking Alpha article I commented on (and provided direct evidence as to why this is not the case) this week that postulates we are presently in a liquidity trap.
It is a balanced approach in the context of managing the monetary base and money supply, with the primary goal of recapitalizing the banking system.
The Fed views interest paid on the required reserves portion of IOR as compensation for what is considered a "tax" on depository institutions. That is, depository institutions are required to hold a certain amount of reserves (required reserves) and are unable to earn anything on those funds (the Fed views this as a tax as this money is in limbo). I do not agree with this notion as I view it as a cost of doing business ... I view it as necessary collateral for conducting operations. But the much bigger issue is interest paid on excess reserves.
From the perspective of a fiat money system propped up by legal tender laws and petrodollar hegemony, why is the composition of the Fed's balance sheet so important? Granted, the Fed needs to possess valuable assets instead of junk if it plans on extinguishing money by selling its assets back on the open market, but is there a reason related to the value of the dollar that I'm not seeing?
This is precisely the reason (you have read/understood my articles). This may be much more important than you realize and
is directly related to the value of the US Dollar. If the Fed experiences losses in its portfolio (whether via asset quality or interest rate movements), it is then hampered in its ability (based on the degree of the losses) to execute monetary policy. This could mean, for example, the inability of the Fed to reign in excess reserves it would like to extinguish (because of monetary inflation that is taking place). The inability for the Fed to do this would stoke more inflation fears. This would also prompt the banks to do something with their excess reserves (protecting themselves) as the dollar fell ... and this would ripple to other dollar holders. There would be one of several responses by authorities, but each would have their own set of ramifications for the dollar. One response might be for the Fed to obtain approval from Congress to issue its own interest bearing debt. And yes, this would be interesting because this debt would compete with US Treasury debt in the marketplace. This interest bearing debt would be sold by the Fed to extinguish reserves. And yes, the Fed would be holding its own debt as an asset on its balance sheet. Another response (if required) might be a Fed recapitalization effort via the US Treasury.
Is it really necessary for the system to be inflationary just to survive though? I understand that the human element virtually guarantees inflation as an inevitable result of fiat money, but in theory, couldn't the Fed technically seek to maintain a stable monetary base under all conditions, thereby mimicking a gold standard (without any new gold mined)?
That cleared up a LOT for me. Thanks.
In theory, you may be correct. In practicing, mimicking a gold/valued asset standard (without actually implementing a gold/commodity/valued asset standard) would be extraordinarily complex to do. As big as banker egos are, I am not even sure they would think it is feasible. And then (still in practice) you still have the politicians. They would apply pressure to bleed the system away from the light of day. This happened under our Gold standard that ended under Nixon. We were cheating and the world called us on it.
Brian