Why isn't the 16th Amendment sufficient?

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We all know how wrong the federal income tax is, but how can someone claim there is no law allowing the collection of income taxes when the 16th Amendment proves otherwise?

The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration.
 
Well I've read claims that the 16th was never passed. And it's also my understanding that there was an income tax in the 1870s too.
 
I'm not very knowledgeable about this issue, but I did want to mention the following general points:
First, just because Congress has the Constitutional authority to make a certain law does not mean it has necessarily passed such a law in reality. Morever, it's my understanding that people are disputing the precise legal definition of the term "income," which AFAIK is different from our common understanding of the term as applied to wages.

Danke seems to know this subject inside and out though...hopefully he'll come to respond with the specifics about the law.
 
Matt is correct. We had an income tax since 1862.

The 16th Amendment was just a response to the Pollock v. Farmers' Loan & Trust Company case in 1894 where a portion of the income tax was declared unconstitutional.

During the heat of the Civil War, Congress passed and implemented a new excise, the Income Tax of 1862, a tax on:

“all salaries of officers, or payments to persons in the civil, military, naval, or other employment or Service of the United States, including senators and representatives and delegates in Congress, when exceeding the rate of six hundred dollars per annum, a duty of three per centum”,

(The war also stimulated a substantial widening of the subjects and rates of other, more traditional excises).



Enforcement of this tax and several others implemented during the war was relaxed in 1872 and the national government relied thereafter on tariffs for revenue until 1894. In that year, congress attempted to impose an income tax upon receipts which, though the benefits of federal privilege, were also connected with personal property. The tax was promptly declared by the Supreme Court to be unconstitutional in Pollock v. Farmers Loan & Trust (158 U.S. 601). The court reasoned that a tax on income connected with personal property amounted to a tax on the property itself, even while distinguishing between the two things, saying,

”Ordinarily, all taxes paid primarily by persons who can shift the burden upon some one else, or who are under no legal compulsion to pay them, are considered indirect taxes; but a tax upon property holders in respect of their estates, whether real or personal, or of the income yielded by such estates, and the payment of which cannot be avoided, are direct taxes….” and, “The power to tax real and personal property and the income from both, there being an apportionment, is conceded: that such a tax is a direct tax in the meaning of the Constitution has not been, and, in our judgment, cannot be successfully denied: ..."



In response to the Pollock ruling, the 16th amendment was declared ratified in 1913, requiring that a tax on income was not to be construed as an unconstitutional direct tax due to viewing the income as inseparable from its source, as the Pollock court had done. All direct taxes were still required to be apportioned-- any tax on income could only be constructed and enforced as an excise, an indirect tax. This distinction is spelled out by the high court in its 1916 Brushaber v. Union Pacific R. Co., (240 U.S. 1) ruling:

"We are of opinion, however, that the confusion is not inherent, but rather arises from the conclusion that the 16th Amendment provides for a hitherto unknown power of taxation; that is, a power to levy an income tax which, although direct, should not be subject to the regulation of apportionment applicable to all other direct taxes. And the far-reaching effect of this erroneous assumption will be made clear...".



The court notes that the 16th did not repeal or modify Article 1, Section 9, and that an absolute prohibition of unapportioned capitations remains the law of the land. Congress is free to tax ‘incomes’, but what those are held to be, and the manner in which they can legally be taxed, must conform to the prohibition. As the court says, taxation on income is,

“… in its nature an excise entitled to be enforced as such unless and until it was concluded that to enforce it would amount to accomplishing the result which the requirement as to apportionment of direct taxation was adopted to prevent, in which case the duty would arise to disregard form and consider substance alone, and hence subject the tax to the regulation as to apportionment which otherwise as an excise would not apply to it”

Distilling Chief Justice White’s run-on sentence down to manageable form, we read: If a tax on ‘incomes’ amounts to or evolves into a capitation or other direct tax (by, for instance, mis-defining ‘income’ as including personal property, or other things a tax on which would naturally be direct), it’s still unconstitutional unless apportioned. PH
 
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Even if it is illegal good luck getting them to admit it. It's not worth making a big deal out of it. The federal income tax is bad whether it's legal or not.
 
I'm wary of arguments that require the states exactly match the proposal by Congress in all terms (spelling, grammar, and capitalization), at least for amendments before 1960, since:

1) The technology is now available to entirely preclude transcription mistakes, and

2) The Bill of Rights was ratified with several states not matching exactly the language proposed by Congress.

If you value the rights preserved and protected by that document, I'd recommend not using the argument from "The Law That Never Was."
 
I'm wary of arguments that require the states exactly match the proposal by Congress in all terms (spelling, grammar, and capitalization), at least for amendments before 1960, since:

1) The technology is now available to entirely preclude transcription mistakes, and

2) The Bill of Rights was ratified with several states not matching exactly the language proposed by Congress.

If you value the rights preserved and protected by that document, I'd recommend not using the argument from "The Law That Never Was."

Then why have the Secretary of State make certified copies of the proposed amendment and have a chain of custody of the certified copies sent to the states?


And, the Civil War income taxes died with the civil war. The Pollack decided in 1895 dealt with the Income Tax Act of 1894. fyi.
 
Then why have the Secretary of State make certified copies of the proposed amendment and have a chain of custody of the certified copies sent to the states?


And, the Civil War income taxes died with the civil war. The Pollack decided in 1895 dealt with the Income Tax Act of 1894. fyi.

I know this. You might go to Wikipedia and look at who wrote the article "Taxing and Spending Clause." :p ;)
 
Even if it is illegal good luck getting them to admit it. It's not worth making a big deal out of it. The federal income tax is bad whether it's legal or not.

yep, the legal semantics is just meant to fool people into believing that following the law is the right thing. (or all that matters)
 
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=240&invol=103

STANTON v. BALTIC MINING CO, 240 U.S. 103 (1916)

"...the provisions of the 16th Amendment conferred no new power of taxation, but simply prohibited the previous complete and plenary power of income taxation possessed by Congress from the beginning from being taken out of the category of indirect taxation to which it inherently belonged, and being placed [240 U.S. 103, 113] in the category of direct taxation subject to apportionment by a consideration of the sources from which the income was derived,-that is, by testing the tax not by what it was, a tax on income, but by a mistaken theory deduced from the origin or source of the income taxed."
 
http://caselaw.lp.findlaw.com/scripts/getcase.pl?court=US&vol=240&invol=103

STANTON v. BALTIC MINING CO, 240 U.S. 103 (1916)

"...the provisions of the 16th Amendment conferred no new power of taxation, but simply prohibited the previous complete and plenary power of income taxation possessed by Congress from the beginning from being taken out of the category of indirect taxation to which it inherently belonged, and being placed [240 U.S. 103, 113] in the category of direct taxation subject to apportionment by a consideration of the sources from which the income was derived,-that is, by testing the tax not by what it was, a tax on income, but by a mistaken theory deduced from the origin or source of the income taxed."

People that rely on that passage are doing two things wrong.

1) They assume that Congress had no power to pass an income tax prior to the 16th Amendment.
2) They misconstrue what the 16th Amendment in fact did.

Congress has had the power to lay any tax they wanted, on any good or service (except exports), so long as the reason for the raising the revenue by laying the tax was to retire federal debt, fund the defense of the Union, or raise revenues for the general expenditures of the federal government (which in turn clearly benefits the general welfare).

The only limitations on the Taxing Power, other than the General Welfare Clause, were that direct taxes be apportioned and that indirect taxes be uniform.

The question in 1894 was whether taxes on rental income were direct or indirect taxes. The Court felt they were closely enough tied to the capital property that they were direct taxes. As the tax upon the rents were not apportioned, the tax was unconstitutional.

Read that again: because it was not apportioned, the tax was unconstitutional. That means, the Court did not hold the income tax itself to be unconstitutional; had the income tax been apportioned, it would have been held constitutional.

The problem, however, was that Congress considered the tax an indirect one while the Court found it to be a direct tax. Since, absent a Constitutional Amendment, the Court generally gets the last say, Congress amended the Constitution to exempt "direct" income taxes from the apportionment requirement.

That is why the Court said in the case you cite that it added no new power to tax. Congress already had the power, it was just extremely difficult to exercise.

Imagine you are laying on the forest floor, and that you can freely move your arms. Suddenly, without warning, a log rolls onto one of your arms. You aren't injured, or hurt, but just pinned. You can still move your arm somewhat, but it's just very difficult to do. Eventually you orient yourself and push the log off with your legs and feet. You've freed yourself. You can now freely move your arm again.

Were you really given a new power to move your arm? No. Only the impediment to movement was removed. That's what the 16th Amendment did with the Taxing Power.
 
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Says you and your disconnect from reality.

This is a simple question of function.

Pollock held taxes on income derived from real property were equivalent to a tax on the property itself, and thus a direct tax. Under Art. I, Sec. 9, direct taxes must be apportioned. The tax in Pollock, thus being a direct tax, was not apportioned and thus was unconstitutional not for being an income tax but for being an unapportioned direct tax.

Congress amended the Constitution to exempt taxes on income derived from whatever source (re: from real property) were not subject to the apportionment requirement.

Read the language of the amendment and read Pollock. There's no denying this point unless one is in denial or is just delusional.
 
Says you and your disconnect from reality.

There's no denying this point unless one is in denial or is just delusional.

So now the lawyer wannabe moves on to ad hominems.

I get back to you later and show you your ignorance. Or you could save me some time and just look up my prior posts on the income tax, pretty well spelled it out already.

But if I must, I'll try and dig up all the congressional records and Supreme Court citations, again...

In the mean time, has Article 1 Section 9 of the U.S. Constitution been deleted from your "law school" books?
 
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You clearly have not read Pollock. Read it.

158 U. S. 601, 634

The power to tax real and personal property and the income from both, there being an apportionment, is conceded; that such a tax is a direct tax in the meaning of the Constitution has not been, and, in our judgment, cannot be, successfully denied, and yet we are thus invited to hesitate in the enforcement of the mandate of the Constitution, which prohibits Congress from laying a direct tax on the revenue from property of the citizen without regard to state lines, and in such manner that the States cannot intervene by payment in regulation of their own resources lest a government of delegated powers should be found to be, not less powerful, but less absolute, than the imagination of the advocate had supposed.

We are not here concerned with the question whether an income tax be or be not desirable, nor whether such a tax would enable the government to diminish taxes on consumption and duties on imports, and to enter upon what may be believed to be a reform of its fiscal and commercial system. Questions of that character belong to the controversies of political parties, and cannot be settled by judicial decision. In these cases, our province is to determine whether this income tax on the revenue from property does or does not belong to the class of direct taxes. If it does, it is, being unapportioned, in violation of the Constitution, and we must so declare.

158 U. S. 601, 637

Our conclusions may, therefore, be summed up as follows:

First. We adhere to the opinion already announced, that, taxes on real estate being indisputably direct taxes, taxes on the rents or income of real estate are equally direct taxes.

Second. We are of opinion that taxes on personal property, or on the income of personal property, are likewise direct taxes.

Third. The tax imposed by sections twenty-seven to thirty-seven, inclusive, of the act of 1894, so far as it falls on the income of real estate and of personal property, being a direct tax within the meaning of the Constitution, and therefore unconstitutional and void because not apportioned according to representation, all those sections, constituting one entire scheme of taxation, are necessarily invalid.

Then read the response of the 16th Amendment.

The Congress shall have power to lay and collect taxes on incomes, from whatever source derived, without apportionment among the several States, and without regard to any census or enumeration.

You are either in denial about the nature of the Taxing Power, or are deluding yourself. Is that an ad hominem? Possibly. Is it fallacious? Hardly. Ad hominem arguments are only invalid when they aren't relevant. It'd be like saying you are wrong because you are bald. Being bald has nothing to do with how one understands The Taxing Power.

I'm questioning your very understanding of the Taxing Power, which is relevant to the discussion. While it could be seen as an ad hominem attack, it's not fallacious because your understanding is relevant. That it might be an ad hominem in your eyes doesn't make what I've said any less true.
 
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People that rely on that passage are doing two things wrong.

1) They assume that Congress had no power to pass an income tax prior to the 16th Amendment.
2) They misconstrue what the 16th Amendment in fact did.

No, we believe Congress had the power, but it did not extend to direct taxation without apportionment. You are mixing up 'no power' with no 'new' or additional power. It's both elements that make up a 'new power.' The Court decisions after the amendment (not just Stanton) agree with this. Because your first point is incorrect, your conclusion in the second point is also wrong.
 
1) The 16th amendment was never ratified by the states, despite Woodrow Wilson's claim that it was. This alone nullifies the income tax.

2) An income tax levied in the way the 16th amendment provides, is dis-proportioned and thus Un-constitutional

3) The US Supreme court has ruled, on numerous occasions, that the 16th amendment has given Congress, "no new taxing powers".

Dont have the time now to back all this up with links, use Google, you can find this info for yourself. Watch Freedom to Fascism, covers alot of this extensively.

Good luck.
 
16th Amendment improperly ratified.‏

This is my absolute favorite anti-income-tax argument. Most claims that Americans aren't required to pay income tax rely on legal interpretations so tortured only a tax resister could possibly believe them. But the Ohio thing has just enough plausibility to give even sane people pause.
It all started when Ohio was preparing to celebrate the 150th anniversary of its admission to the Union in 1953. Researchers looking for the original statehood documents discovered there'd been a little oversight. While Congress had approved Ohio's boundaries and constitution, it had never passed a resolution formally admitting the future land of the Buckeyes. Technically, therefore, Ohio was not a state.
Predictably, when this came to light it was the subject of much merriment. One senator joshingly suggested that his colleagues from Ohio were drawing federal paychecks under false pretenses.
But Ohio congressman George Bender thought it was no laughing matter. He introduced a bill in Congress to admit Ohio to the Union retroactive to March 1, 1803. At a special session at the old state capital in Chillicothe the Ohio state legislature approved a new petition for statehood that was delivered to Washington on horseback. Congress subsequently passed a joint resolution, and President Eisenhower, after a few more jokes, signed it on August 7, 1953.
But then the tax resisters got to work. They argued that since Ohio wasn't officially a state until 1953, its ratification of the 16th Amendment in 1911 was invalid, and thus Congress had no authority to enact an income tax.
Baloney, argued rational folk. A sufficient number of states voted for ratification even if you don't count Ohio.
OK, said the resisters, but the proposed amendment had been introduced to Congress by the administration of William H. Taft. Taft had been born in Cincinnati, Ohio, in 1857. The Constitution requires that presidents be natural-born citizens of the United States. Since Ohio was not a state in 1857, Taft was not a natural-born citizen, could not legally be president, and could not legally introduce the 16th Amendment. (Presumably one would also have problems with anything done by presidents Grant, Hayes, Garfield, B. Harrison, McKinley, and Harding, who were also born in Ohio.)
Get off it, the rationalists replied. The 1953 resolution retroactively admitted Ohio as of 1803, thereby rendering all subsequent events copacetic.
Uh-uh, said the resisters. The constitution says the Congress shall make no ex post facto law. That means no retroactive admissions to statehood.
Uh, we'll get back to you on that, said the rationalists.
A call to the IRS elicited the following official statement: "The courts have . . . rejected claims that the Sixteenth Amendment . . . was not properly ratified. . . . In Porth v. Brodrick, 214 F.2d 925 (10th Circuit 1954), the court dismissed an attack on the Sixteenth Amendment as being 'clearly unsubstantial and without merit,' as well as 'far fetched and frivolous.'"
Just one problem. The Porth decision didn't specifically address the Ohio argument. It just sort of spluttered that attacks on the 16th Amendment were stupid.
OK, they're stupid. But great matters have turned on seemingly sillier points of law. It's not like the Ohio argument couldn't have been defeated on the merits. One suspects that from a legal standpoint "ex post facto" doesn't mean exactly the same thing as "retroactive." And of course the weight of 150 years of history, during which time everyone thought Ohio had been properly admitted, ought to count for something.
I'm not defending the crackpots. But if you're a parent you recognize that "because I said so" isn't much of an argument. Guess it's different if you're a judge.
 
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