THE CHICAGO WAY: Thousands Of Residents Commit Fraud To Keep College Student Off Ballot

Ok, so let this play out. Heck, help it along if you can. Now who would write the E.O. to set this in motion? The Donald aint going to do it. Only because this is going to take more time and he'd be out of office, even if he gets a second term. I don't think anybody in the G.O.P. has the political cajones to do it. They would need to be Trump on roids.
Or there would need to be enough public outcry, that is why I want to know what it would take to get Rand to talk about it and hold hearings about it.

If legalized ballot harvesting fraud isn't enough what would be?

Will it take an armed uprising against single party/voter fraud rule in California?
 
Ok, so let this play out. Heck, help it along if you can. Now who would write the E.O. to set this in motion? The Donald aint going to do it. Only because this is going to take more time and he'd be out of office, even if he gets a second term. I don't think anybody in the G.O.P. has the political cajones to do it. They would need to be Trump on roids.

It would take more than an executive order. Two thirds of the voters in the state would have to approve it as well as two thirds of Congress.
 
It would take more than an executive order. Two thirds of the voters in the state would have to approve it as well as two thirds of Congress.
Citation please.

The clause in question says nothing about how it is to be implemented and it has never been dealt with in the entire history of the US.
 
Citation please.

The clause in question says nothing about how it is to be implemented and it has never been dealt with in the entire history of the US.

US Constitution.

https://www.law.cornell.edu/constitution/articleiv

Section 3.
New states may be admitted by the Congress into this union; but no new states shall be formed or erected within the jurisdiction of any other state; nor any state be formed by the junction of two or more states, or parts of states, without the consent of the legislatures of the states concerned as well as of the Congress.

The Congress shall have power to dispose of and make all needful rules and regulations respecting the territory or other property belonging to the United States; and nothing in this Constitution shall be so construed as to prejudice any claims of the United States, or of any particular state

And yes, it has already been used. https://constitutioncenter.org/blog/how-to-make-a-state-three-ways-to-redraw-the-u-s-a

This process has been used successfully to create five states: Vermont (from New York, in 1791); Kentucky (from Virginia, in 1792); Tennessee (from North Carolina, in 1796); Maine (from Massachusetts, in 1820); and West Virginia (from Virginia, in 1863).
 
Are we talking about the same thing?

What has that got to do with seizing control of California to restore a Republican form of government?

You suggested dividing up the state.

Perhaps that could lead to the ideal solution, a division of California with the leftists allowed to leave as an independent country and the red counties kept as the state of California.

The event and the place will make all the difference as you say.
 
You suggested dividing up the state.
As a resolution to a rebellion, that is just a possibility and it would take place with the consent of the legislature of the state.

The post you replied to was about the invocation of the Republican form of government clause in the first place not about the possible result.
 
As a resolution to a rebellion, that is just a possibility and it would take place with the consent of the legislature of the state.

The post you replied to was about the invocation of the Republican form of government clause in the first place not about the possible result.

The post I replied to was a reply to the one of yours suggesting the division of California.
 
The Madigan - Quinn dem 13th ward website still asks if you would like to sign a petition when I looked last .
 
The post I replied to was a reply to the one of yours suggesting the division of California.
The post of mine that was referenced was also about the basic idea and that is the EO that Paul's Revere was referring to, I never suggested any other EO.
 
were talking about something happening (an event/condition of some sort) that would then initiate a Federal action that the FEDS would seize control of a state because it is not acting as a republic form of government.

Swordy is referring to the vote harvesting fraud in California as a likely event, and if not what would it take. How do we get the publics attention on this?

Question: When was the last time the FEDS wrested control from a state and governed it?

I did find this:

http://seisinmag.com/new-blog/2016/4/24/c1geg546k8uqh2p2qjn969h8y2b71f

However, while the original intent of the Elections Clause may have been narrow, the language itself is unbounded. In the last 150 years the Supreme Court has recognized an expansive right of the federal government to control national elections for Congress, coupling the express authority in the Elections Clause with the Congress's general authority under Article I, Section 8 to make laws “Necessary and Proper” to the exercise of its powers.

In 1879, in an early case upholding the right of the federal government to punish states for electoral fraud, the Supreme Court stated that the “Congress has plenary and paramount jurisdiction over the whole subject” of congressional elections, and this power “may be exercised as and when Congress sees fit to exercise it.”
 
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Question: When was the last time the FEDS wrested control from a state and governed it?
The "Civil War" but that was a case of "rebellion" not lack of a Republican form of government.


I did find this:

http://seisinmag.com/new-blog/2016/4/24/c1geg546k8uqh2p2qjn969h8y2b71f

However, while the original intent of the Elections Clause may have been narrow, the language itself is unbounded. In the last 150 years the Supreme Court has recognized an expansive right of the federal government to control national elections for Congress, coupling the express authority in the Elections Clause with the Congress's general authority under Article I, Section 8 to make laws “Necessary and Proper” to the exercise of its powers.

In 1879, in an early case upholding the right of the federal government to punish states for electoral fraud, the Supreme Court stated that the “Congress has plenary and paramount jurisdiction over the whole subject” of congressional elections, and this power “may be exercised as and when Congress sees fit to exercise it.”
True, but I doubt that we can get Congress to pass a ban on ballot harvesting with the Demoncrats in control of the House, we also need federal investigations into all other forms of election fraud that result in prosecutions.

And in any case Congress doesn't have legislative authority over state and local elections but if they are corrupted sufficiently the Republican form of government clause could be applied.
 
The "Civil War" but that was a case of "rebellion" not lack of a Republican form of government.



True, but I doubt that we can get Congress to pass a ban on ballot harvesting with the Demoncrats in control of the House, we also need federal investigations into all other forms of election fraud that result in prosecutions.

And in any case Congress doesn't have legislative authority over state and local elections but if they are corrupted sufficiently the Republican form of government clause could be applied.

Then perhaps there is a anti - voter fraud organization that can lobby this?
 
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