Should babies be baptized?

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If I might play devil's advocate again...

Acts 8:37 isn't in all of the original manuscripts, but leaving that aside, it isn't dealing with the child of believers. Paedobaptists don't believe in baptizing everyone regardless of belief. They regard the children of believers as holy and covenentally connected.

I didn't say it was dealing with the child of believers. I posted that passage to show that baptism is by immersion, not sprinkling a few drops of water.

As for verse 37 not being in all manuscripts...that is true, but from what I have seen, it is a few of the modern translations - which are known for being less accurate, and some would say even subversive (like the NIV) - that left out that verse. I'm not a KJV only person (and personally I don't like to read it because of the 'thees and thous') but I do believe that the KJV is more reliable than some of the modern translations. But that is a topic for another thread.
 
When anyone reads the bible (not just these particular verses, but in general) one must discern which verses are literal and which are figurative. It's not a matter of picking and choosing... but reading the bible prayerfully, with the Holy Spirit who teaches us and gives us understanding (John 14:26 John 16:13, 1 Cor. 2:10, 1 Cor. 2:13, etc.)

Jesus gives us examples to go by. We need to go by Jesus' example or what the scriptures teach. If we don't, we are adding to the bible or taking things away... which is a dangerous thing to do and goes directly goes against God's command.

I think you're confused actually. Yes--the bread and the wine symbolize the body and the blood of Christ after it's blessed--becomes the literal body and blood of Christ. This is why Jesus said--do this in remembrance of Me.


John:6
[SUP]57 [/SUP]As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me.

Me and erowe discussed this too and came to an agreement after a long theological study of the words "curse and damnation". We both agreed that it's definitely a "curse" to take the bread and the wine without first discerning the sacraments. So the Eucharist is not symbolic--it is a literal transformation of the bread and wine into the body of Christ when done with the discernment of who Christ is and what purpose this serves.

This should not be confused with the baptizing of babies at all. Baptism is a blessing and a non threatening practice when it's done with the belief that all babies are innocent whether they're baptized or not. If it's done in the name of the Lord and towards God--God is able to make anyone stand in light of this.
 
I think you're confused actually. Yes--the bread and the wine symbolize the body and the blood of Christ after it's blessed--becomes the literal body and blood of Christ. This is why Jesus said--do this in remembrance of Me.


John:6
[SUP]57 [/SUP]As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me.

Me and erowe discussed this too and came to an agreement after a long theological study of the words "curse and damnation". We both agreed that it's definitely a "curse" to take the bread and the wine without first discerning the sacraments. So the Eucharist is not symbolic--it is a literal transformation of the bread and wine into the body of Christ when done with the discernment of who Christ is and what purpose this serves.

This should not be confused with the baptizing of babies at all. Baptism is a blessing and a non threatening practice when it's done with the belief that all babies are innocent whether they're baptized or not. If it's done in the name of the Lord and towards God--God is able to make anyone stand in light of this.

You must spread some Reputation around before giving it to Terry1 again.
:(
 
As a culture we tend to want to dictate how our children identify with everything around him or her. God, if one wishes. Is unfortunate that we can't detach from the notion that it isn't for us to decide. We see so many times in which biblicists demonstrate the magnitude of diversity that exists among themselves. Almost to the point of self destruction in spirit. Of course, there is much to be said for that. At the end of the day, I think, it comes down to identity. A natural identity. It's missing. Lost, likely, is a better word. I don't know.
 
I think you're confused actually. Yes--the bread and the wine symbolize the body and the blood of Christ after it's blessed--becomes the literal body and blood of Christ. This is why Jesus said--do this in remembrance of Me.


John:6
[SUP]57 [/SUP]As the living Father hath sent me, and I live by the Father: so he that eateth me, even he shall live by me.

Me and erowe discussed this too and came to an agreement after a long theological study of the words "curse and damnation". We both agreed that it's definitely a "curse" to take the bread and the wine without first discerning the sacraments. So the Eucharist is not symbolic--it is a literal transformation of the bread and wine into the body of Christ when done with the discernment of who Christ is and what purpose this serves.

That's a topic for another thread, and one that has already been debated extensively by others. And TBH that is not a topic that I have any desire to debate, at least not today.


This should not be confused with the baptizing of babies at all. Baptism is a blessing and a non threatening practice when it's done with the belief that all babies are innocent whether they're baptized or not. If it's done in the name of the Lord and towards God--God is able to make anyone stand in light of this.

Yes, babies are innocent, and that is one of the reasons why water baptism does not apply to them at all.

So, if it's about the parents' declaration to raise their child as a Christian, then one can dedicate their child - which there are examples of in the bible - instead of going through the motions of a ceremony that is unnecessary at best, and dangerous (if one believes it saves) at worst.
 
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Welcome back to you too! :) I haven't seen you here in a while.

I think there are many parents who would feel comforted by things like that. I think it's unfortunate that people with good intentions sometimes put their faith in the wrong things, or find comfort in the wrong things. That's why knowledge is so important, as God strongly stated in Hosea 4:6.

Babies who die go straight to heaven. So if parents studied the bible, they would have the comfort that comes from God, not from religious ceremonies.
Thank you lily, and i agree with that totally. :)
 
That's a topic for another thread, and one that has already been debated extensively by others. And TBH that is not a topic that I have any desire to debate, at least not today.





Yes, babies are innocent, and that is one of the reasons why water baptism does not apply to them at all.

So, if it's more about the parents' declaration to raise their child as a Christian, then one can dedicate their child - which there are examples of in the bible - instead of going through the motions of a ceremony that is unnecessary at best, and dangerous (if one believes it saves) at worst.


I would think that you might be more concerned with the doctrine that claims that you're saved after a one-time confession of belief no matter how evil of a life you live afterwards--than a harmless blessing of baptizing a baby.
 
I would think that you might be more concerned with the doctrine that claims that you're saved after a one-time confession of belief no matter how evil of a life you live afterwards--than a harmless blessing of baptizing a baby.

That too is a different topic, and one that we all debated til we were blue in the face, for months. I am not concerned with it, because I understand it --- not a distorted straw man version of it.

As for baby baptism being 'harmless' - I beg to differ. It is dangerous if people don't realize that it is not about salvation. I have known people who believed they were saved or that their kids are saved - because of their baby baptism. If that is not dangerous, I don't know what is.
 
That too is a different topic, and one that we all debated til we were blue in the face, for months. I am not concerned with it, because I understand it --- not a distorted straw man version of it.

As for baby baptism being 'harmless' - I beg to differ. It is dangerous if people don't realize that it is not about salvation. I have known people who believed they were saved or that their kids are saved - because of their baby baptism. If that is not dangerous, I don't know what is.

That is called "anecdotal evidence". Not valid.
 
That too is a different topic, and one that we all debated til we were blue in the face, for months. I am not concerned with it, because I understand it --- not a distorted straw man version of it.

As for baby baptism being 'harmless' - I beg to differ. It is dangerous if people don't realize that it is not about salvation. I have known people who believed they were saved or that their kids are saved - because of their baby baptism. If that is not dangerous, I don't know what is.

I definitely don't believe anyone is saved by it. You're saved by faith in Christ, period.

That said, I'm not convinced that any of the verses in question absolutely require immersion, and even if they did, I'm pretty sure the EOC immerses babies at least some of the time (I have other problems with the EOC, but my point is that infant immersion is technically possible even if I wonder if that's comfortable for the baby.)
 
That too is a different topic, and one that we all debated til we were blue in the face, for months. I am not concerned with it, because I understand it --- not a distorted straw man version of it.

As for baby baptism being 'harmless' - I beg to differ. It is dangerous if people don't realize that it is not about salvation. I have known people who believed they were saved or that their kids are saved - because of their baby baptism. If that is not dangerous, I don't know what is.

Well this is where you and I differ. I believe that a baptized baby in the EOC has a far better chance being raised in a Church where the true Gospel of Jesus Christ is taught, rather than growing up in a church where that child believes he or she is saved after a one time confession of belief no matter how they live their lives after that one time event.


Any church that would baptize someone and tell them that they're saved forever more after that event no matter how they live or treat people--is not a true baptism in Christ--it is false and a lie.
 
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That is called "anecdotal evidence". Not valid.

We're not in a court of law here. :) I was responding to the statement that it's a harmless doctrine.... and I don't agree with that. It goes against Jesus' example, it is not supported by scripture, and unless the church makes it super clear that it's not about salvation, then it DOES mislead people.


I definitely don't believe anyone is saved by it. You're saved by faith in Christ, period.

That said, I'm not convinced that any of the verses in question absolutely require immersion, and even if they did, I'm pretty sure the EOC immerses babies at least some of the time (I have other problems with the EOC, but my point is that infant immersion is technically possible even if I wonder if that's comfortable for the baby.)

Well, the issue on HOW to baptize is just one point. What some of us here have been saying is that there's no need for babies to be water baptized at all, immersion or not.

Blessings or baby dedications are biblical, and serve the purpose that some here have claimed infant baptism is about..... So I'm honestly perplexed on why some people don't follow the biblical model when it comes to babies.
 
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Jesus Sprinkles, Not Immerses

And Jesus, when he was baptized, went up straightway out of the water: and, lo, the heavens were opened unto him, and he saw the Spirit of God descending like a dove, and lighting upon him: And lo a voice from heaven, saying, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased.

Matthew 3:16-17


Here are a few points you seem to be ignoring:

1) It took place in the Jordan River. (Matt 3:6, Matt 3:13) - Not a church with a bowl of water, and there is no mention of sprinkling a few drops on his forehead.
2) He came up out of the water. - The words "up" and "out of the water" indicate that he was down or submerged, even if only for a moment.
3) The Greek word for baptism itself (Baptizo) means to immerse, dip or submerge.


Another example is in Acts 8, the Ethiopian eunuch who became a believer. I'm going to bold some important parts to pay attention to:

As they went along the road they came to some water; and the eunuch said, “Look! Water! What prevents me from being baptized?” And Philip said, “If you believe with all your heart, you may.” And he answered and said, “I believe that Jesus Christ is the Son of God.” And he ordered the chariot to stop; and they both went down into the water, Philip as well as the eunuch, and he baptized him.

So as you can see, belief with all one's heart is a prerequisite. And as you can see, for them to both be standing in the water clearly shows that it wasn't like a church baby baptism were the priest is dry and there is a bowl of water and a few drops are sprinkled.

During a water baptism, the person who is doing the baptizing is also in the water, whether it's a river, ocean or pool....any place where a person can be immersed.

I've shared this a few times before, but I'll share it again. Towards the beginning of this video is a short clip of my water baptism. (you don't have to watch the whole thing... just the first 30 seconds or so)



Lilymc, there are a few problems with your view above that I'd like to address:

1. Indeed, Matthew 3:17 says that Jesus "went up straightway out of the water." However, His coming up out of the water occurred after He was baptized. Just read the passage again, for it says, "And Jesus, when He was baptized, went up straightway out of the water." So, His baptism happened, and then He got out of the water. The text doesn't say that Jesus was baptized by going in and out of the water. Thus, you're assuming that His mode of baptism was by immersion, using a phrase incorrectly, which you don't even apply consistently (as I'll show you in a moment).

But just because Jesus was baptized in a large body of water does not mean that He must have been immersed in it. The apostle Paul tells us that the Old Testament Church was baptized in a large body of water (the Red Sea), but we know that the waters of the sea never touched them because they were baptized from water above them (cf. Psalm 77:17). Thus, in Paul's view, Israel's baptism under Moses was a true baptism, and it did not occur by immersion. It was the Egyptian Army that was immersed in the sea because God drowned them in its waters, in judgment.

2. In Acts 8, we're told that the Ethiopian eunuch was reading from the prophet Isaiah (v. 28). Then in Verse 32, we're shown what place the eunuch was reading from, as it cites from Isaiah 53:7: "He is brought as a lamb to the slaughter and as a sheep before her shearers is dumb, so He openeth not His mouth." After Philip explains to him that the passage is referring to Jesus, the eunuch asks, "See, here is water; what doth hinder me to be baptized?" Now where did the eunuch get that idea from? We're not told that Philip mentioned baptism to him, after all. When we consider the context of what the eunuch was reading, we find in Isaiah 52:13-15 (which, by the way, there were no chapter and verse divisions in the Old Testament scrolls) that it says:

Behold, My Servant shall deal prudently, He shall be exalted and extolled and be very high. As many were astonied at Thee, His visage was so marred more than any man, and His form more than the sons of men, so shall He sprinkle many nations...

Thus, it appears that the Ethiopian eunuch understood that he should be baptized because of the sprinkling language in Isaiah, and that definitely was the mode of cleansing and purification in the Old Testament. So, the context still doesn't imply that the Ethiopian eunuch's baptism was by immersion.

But here is where you get inconsistent, lilymc. You cite Acts 8:38, where it says, "And he commanded the chariot to stand still, and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch, and he baptized him," as a prooftext that baptism is by immersion, emphasizing the phrase "they went down both into the water." In your baptism video, there was only one person who "went down into the water" (you), even though the Acts 8:38 passage says that "they both went down into the water." So, given your hermeneutical standard, it would appear that your baptism was not done properly by the language of the text because the person who baptized you did not go "into the water" when you did. So, was it a valid immersion?

Also, we find the same problem of sequence that I addressed in the Matthew 3 passage, concerning the action of going into the water and the act of being baptized. In Acts 8:38, it states, "And he commanded the chariot to stand still, and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch, and he baptized him." Notice that at the end of that passage, it tells us that Philip baptized the eunuch. But then in the beginning of Verse 39, we read, "And when they were come up out of the water..." So, the eunuch's baptism occurred before they both came up out of the water. From a Baptist interpretation, they see those two verses as teaching baptism by immersion, explicitly, by its use of their "going down into the water" and their "coming up out of the water." However, in the middle of those two clauses, it says that Philip baptized the eunuch. So, it is not likely that that passage is teaching baptism by immersion, or else you have to say that both the baptizer and the recipient must go under the water together. But your baptism in your video shows otherwise, lilymc.
 
both[/B] went down into the water." So, given your hermeneutical standard, it would appear that your baptism was not done properly by the language of the text because the person who baptized you did not go "into the water" when you did. So, was it a valid immersion?

No, no, no. You misunderstood me. I never claimed that they both went under water. My point was that it's obvious from the text that they both went into the pool of water - in other words, Philip was standing in the water, in order to baptize the eunuch. Re-read my post, and you will see that I said they were both standing in the water, which shows that it wasn't a baptism like in some churches, where the priest is dry and there is a bowl of water to sprinkle on a baby's forehead.

Also, we find the same problem of sequence that I addressed in the Matthew 3 passage, concerning the action of going into the water and the act of being baptized. In Acts 8:38, it states, "And he commanded the chariot to stand still, and they went down both into the water, both Philip and the eunuch, and he baptized him." Notice that at the end of that passage, it tells us that Philip baptized the eunuch. But then in the beginning of Verse 39, we read, "And when they were come up out of the water..." So, the eunuch's baptism occurred before they both came up out of the water. From a Baptist interpretation, they see those two verses as teaching baptism by immersion, explicitly, by its use of their "going down into the water" and their "coming up out of the water." However, in the middle of those two clauses, it says that Philip baptized the eunuch. So, it is not likely that that passage is teaching baptism by immersion, or else you have to say that both the baptizer and the recipient must go under the water together. But your baptism in your video shows otherwise, lilymc.

Again, my claim was not that they both went under water. I don't know how you got that out of my words. My claim was that they were both in some sort of pool of water... and that's where the baptism took place.

Sometimes in a zeal to protect a church doctrine, common sense gets thrown out the window. If water baptism is only about a few sprinkles, why did John the Baptist baptize people in the Jordan River? Why did Philip and the eunuch go into a body of water - where the text is clear that they both were in? If a sprinkling of a few drops inside a church is the correct model, then the bible would have made that clear. Jesus would have been baptized in a church, with a few drops being sprinkled. But that's not the example we were given.

As for the other stuff you posted... I'm sorry, but it's way too far out there for me to even want to address. The bible can be made to say just about anything, with enough adding on, twisting and reaching. I'll let JM or Kevin, or someone else reply to you on that.
 
Be Careful of Your Assumptions

No, no, no. You misunderstood me. I never claimed that they both went under water. My point was that it's obvious from the text that they both went into the pool of water - in other words, Philip was standing in the water, in order to baptize the eunuch. Re-read my post, and you will see that I said they were both standing in the water, which shows that it wasn't a baptism like in some churches, where the priest is dry and there is a bowl of water to sprinkle on a baby's forehead.



Again, my claim was not that they both went under water. I don't know how you got that out of my words. My claim was that they were both in some sort of pool of water... and that's where the baptism took place.

Sometimes in a zeal to protect a church doctrine, common sense gets thrown out the window. If water baptism is only about a few sprinkles, why did John the Baptist baptize people in the Jordan River? Why did Philip and the eunuch go into a body of water - where the text is clear that they both were in? If a sprinkling of a few drops inside a church is the correct model, then the bible would have made that clear. Jesus would have been baptized in a church, with a few drops being sprinkled. But that's not the example we were given.

As for the other stuff you posted... I'm sorry, but it's way too far out there for me to even want to address. The bible can be made to say just about anything, with enough adding on, twisting and reaching. I'll let JM or Kevin, or someone else reply to you on that.

Once again, just because there is a huge body of water where someone is getting baptized does not mean that baptism must be by immersion. As I mentioned, the apostle Paul reminds us that the Old Testament Church was baptized in a large body of water, too--the Red Sea. Yet, they were not immersed in the sea with water; they were baptized with water from the clouds above as they passed through the sea on dry ground. So, you're arguing from silence when you say that baptism must be by immersion because Jesus and others were present in rivers when they were baptized.

Also, baptism is a cleansing or purification rite. In the Old Testament, all cleansings and purifications were done by sprinkling or pouring, whether they were done to people, holy objects, or sanctified places. That is where we begin in order to understand what baptism is and how it is to be administered because all Christian doctrines have their foundation in the Old Testament. Just because the culture used the Greek word baptizo to mean "immersion" does not mean that that's how Jewish believers would have used that term.
 
Jmdrake, this post just sounds like you're arguing for the sake of arguing. What you're forgetting is that God uses physical means to accomplish His spiritual blessings. He used men to write His word, and He ordains men to be governors of their homes, local churches, and civil magistrates. But just because God uses men to bring about His blessings does not mean that the blessing which is communicated through the instrument of those men is contingent on anything in them. That's why I said baptism points to God; it does not point to the persons who administer it, for it is not their sacrament but the Lord's.

I'm not going to respond to your Constantine example because I've already made myself clear on the fallacy in which your example is based.

Theocrat, you clearly don't know what a fallacy is. Constantine is a closer example to the Red Sea than the Red Sea is to actual baptism. Your biggest fallacy is that you've taken the symbolism Paul was using to make a point and turned it into literalism all the while ignoring the teaching that water baptism is a baptism of repentance.
 
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Once again, just because there is a huge body of water where someone is getting baptized does not mean that baptism must be by immersion. As I mentioned, the apostle Paul reminds us that the Old Testament Church was baptized in a large body of water, too--the Red Sea. Yet, they were not immersed in the sea with water; they were baptized with water from the clouds above as they passed through the sea on dry ground. So, you're arguing from silence when you say that baptism must be by immersion because Jesus and others were present in rivers when they were baptized.

Also, baptism is a cleansing or purification rite. In the Old Testament, all cleansings and purifications were done by sprinkling or pouring, whether they were done to people, holy objects, or sanctified places. That is where we begin in order to understand what baptism is and how it is to be administered because all Christian doctrines have their foundation in the Old Testament. Just because the culture used the Greek word baptizo to mean "immersion" does not mean that that's how Jewish believers would have used that term.

Paul was making a symbolic point. He was not endorsing a baptismal method. If he was then it is acceptable to baptize people who don't even realize it.
 
Well, the issue on HOW to baptize is just one point. What some of us here have been saying is that there's no need for babies to be water baptized at all, immersion or not.

Blessings or baby dedications are biblical, and serve the purpose that some here have claimed infant baptism is about..... So I'm honestly perplexed on why some people don't follow the biblical model when it comes to babies.

While I don't believe baptism actually removes sin, I disagree with you on the point that babies are innocent. That's one big theological disagreement here.

Another one is covenental continuity. Babies received the sign of the covenant in the OT, so why not now? That's the answer I'm still looking for.
 
I didn't say it was dealing with the child of believers. I posted that passage to show that baptism is by immersion, not sprinkling a few drops of water.

As for verse 37 not being in all manuscripts...that is true, but from what I have seen, it is a few of the modern translations - which are known for being less accurate, and some would say even subversive (like the NIV) - that left out that verse. I'm not a KJV only person (and personally I don't like to read it because of the 'thees and thous') but I do believe that the KJV is more reliable than some of the modern translations. But that is a topic for another thread.

What's wrong with the archaic 2nd person singular pronoun "thou"? I rather like it because, especially in old/ancient texts, it is clear when the speaker is addressing one person or a group. It's a nuance that's lost in modern English. JMHO.
 
Lookit what I found. Of course, it's not as invigorating as when you're alone out in the wilderness in the water without a camera pointed in your direction but kind of similar. Is actually how I "baptized" myself before the grown-ups dunked me conforming to their own little "official" ceremony. Everyone should try this sometime. I'm serious now. If you want to meet "God" then here is how it's done.

[video=youtube;hZUyqf4d1LA]https://www.youtube.com/watch?annotation_id=annotation_263898&feature=iv&s rc_vid=h7eLe_yMkdg&v=hZUyqf4d1LA[/video]
 
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