Bradley in DC
Member
- Joined
- May 18, 2007
- Messages
- 12,279
I have to step in to stand up for this guy. He raises a valid question that I've wondered about myself.
It's important to remember in this debate that money has no inherent value.
Welcome to the forum. Interesting first post.
In this case, starting from the wrong premise inevitably leads to your other problems. It's better to understand how we got money and what we choose as money are goods with a higher "use value."
For a good, readable introduction, start with Menger's Principles of Economics:
http://www.mises.org/etexts/menger/eight.asp
And Mises himself here in Monetary Services and the Value of Money (note the difference between money having an "intrinsic value" and an "intrinsic exchange value"):
http://www.mises.org/mmmp/mmmp4.asp
It is clear that the naive conception of the layman that things have value in themselves, i.e., intrinsic value, necessarily leads to a position which draws the dividing line between money and money substitutes differently from the position according to which the value of a thing is derived from its usefulness. Those who conceive of value as the result of properties inherent in things must necessarily make a distinction between physically valuable money and means of exchange which provide monetary services but are without material value. This approach inescapably leads to a contrasting of normal money with bad and abnormal money, which, in reality, is not money at all.
Today there is no need to deal with this theory. For the modern subjective theory of value, the question has long been decided. No one would still openly defend a concept according to which the whole or a portion of value and price theory was based upon intrinsic exchange value, i.e., independent of the valuations of acting men. Once this is admitted, one has already adopted the fundamental principle of subjective value theory, i.e., the theory of marginal utility.