As we discussed in many previous threads, there's a difference between
A. Taking $10 in, lending $9, keeping only $1.
vs.
B. Taking $10 in, claiming to have $100, and lending out $90.
vs.
C. Taking $10, keeping it all.
A. Is the typical bank operation of fractional reserve
B. Is outright printing money, increasing money supply, "lending money that doesn't exist"
C. Simply depositing money and doing nothing with it.
The act of A in and of itself is NOT fraudulent, it ONLY is fraudulent if the depositor of the original $10 was told he can cash it at any time, and it won't be lent out without his consent (it which case, it's a broken promise or breach of contract). It's also fraudulent if a borrower was told the $9 he borrows wasn't originally borrowed from somebody else, and isn't aware can be asked back any time.
http://www.market-ticker.org/archives/1019-Rebuttal-To-Mish-FRL.html
WHAT'S WRONG WITH FRACTIONAL RESERVE AND LENDING IF EVERY PERSON AFFECTED AGREES TO EVERY PART OF IT?
Fraud means somebody was lied to, somebody was not told the whole story, but what if DEPOSITOR KNOWS, BANKS KNOWS, BORROWER KNOWS, ALL AGREE?
This issue can get even more confusing when you consider money as cash and money as checkbook ledgers. But you left out a description of what really happens:
When a depositor puts $10 cash into a bank....
supposedly the bank then uses a portion of that deposit to lend out. But, does the bank deduct that amount from the original depositors account? No, of course not. Why? Because it doesn't have to...its
creating money in a ledger.
"Of course, they [banks] do not really pay out loans from the money they receive as deposits. If they did this, no additional money would be created."
(Modern Money Mechanics last paragraph..page 6)
http://www.scribd.com/doc/3990690/Modern-Money-Mechanics
What actually happens is...$10
cash is deposited by a fellow named John. Based on this amount (
but not taken from it), the bank "creates" an additional $10 in a ledger and loans our $9...$1 is kept in reserve (
in actually, the amount loaned vs held in reserve is not important to the example..see threads on "zero reserve" banking). The important part is
the original $10 remains untouched in John's account.
http://www.ronpaulforums.com/showthread.php?p=2094149#post2094149
The $9 in checkbook money that is loaned, is used by a borrower to purchase a
tangible asset (such as a house). If John (the original depositor) withdraws his $10 in cash from his checking account and hour after the home loan was made...no problem, its still in his account.

However, if the
seller of the house goes to the bank and asks to "cash" the $9 check which was just used to purchase the house...there is a
potential problem for the bank. The bank doesn't have any cash.
The bank must now scramble for cash reserves to cover all its obligations caused by it
creating more checkbook money than it has cash..... It can sell its tangible asset (house or mortgage note) for the cash, assuming the value of the tangible asset hasn't dropped .(
If the value of all the bank's tangible assets are less than its cash obligations it can cause problems. IE: real estate crash leading to bank closure.) Bank runs are when large numbers of people demand "cash" from the bank at once, and there isn't enough sellable assets to back the demand for cash.
So in other words...the bank creates and lends (at interest)
more checkbook money than it actually has been deposited in cash reserve (some call this fraud). Then... if it is called upon to to meet its cash obligations, it goes searching through its assets, (that the bank previously purchased with this "fraudulent" checkbook money), and trys to liquefy them into cash.
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Some on this board and at the Market Ticker claim that since the bank can potentially cover its duel obligations created by its money creation, by selling its tangible assets, that means the process of money creation by the bank is not fraudulent.
It may not be fraudulent in the sense that it has been made legal... But they ignore that fact that the bank is allowed to
create more money than previously existed in cash (inflationary) to purchase the tangible assets to begin with...and allowed to charge interest on it. That IMO gives the banking sector an unfair advantage over the rest of society. And big surprise... banks own nearly everything of tangible value as a result...homes, cars, factories..etc.