I guess I didn't fully understand why people accept banknotes today, without a gold standard.
Because of legal tender laws, taxes on gold/silver, the requirement that taxes be paid in FRNs, etc.
"No matter where you earn the money, its origin was a bank and its ultimate destination is a bank. The loop through which it travels can be large or small, but the fact remains all interest is paid eventually by human effort."
Yes, all interest is paid by human effort. As is all rent, all utility bills, all pizza delivery bills, etc. In other words, you sell what you produce to buy what others produce; it's the essence of the market economy. The bank is not unique in this. It, like every other actor in the market, is selling its product in exchange for others' product.
It's incorrect to think of the bank as getting something for nothing. The banknotes which it gives to Bob aren't nothing, no more than bonds or other debt instruments are nothing. The bank had to accumulate wealth in the first place in order to loan it out, same as any other creditor; it had to forgo present consumption (its reward for which is interest).
To the extent that it's borrowing wealth and relending it (as opposed to lending out its own accumulated wealth), that too is not something for nothing; that's a valuable service, which allows creditors and debtors to find one another who otherwise wouldn't, ala say Ebay with regard to retail sellers and buyers.
People seem to like your post refuting of Walter here.
But this is all semantic gymnastics. The only point anyone is making about anything is whether a deposit is a loan or a deposit.
EVERYONE AGREES that money owned by people can be loaned.
The two sides of this argument disagree on only one thing, whether a deposit transfers ownership of the money to a bank or not.
A contract means whatever the contracting parties intended for it to mean. If A and B get together and make an agreement which they understand to be a loan, it's a loan - end of story. WizardWatson cannot come by later and tell them, "Nope, sorry, I know you thought you were making a loan, but it was actually a bailment, because I say so." If they thought it was a loan, it was a loan, and hence there's nothing fraudulent in the borrowing party relending it.
I and the rest of the world call that situation (i.e. a bank relending a call loan) fractional reserve banking, because it involves the bank holding fractional reserves. You want to reserve the term "fractional reserve banking" for a situation where a bank lends out a bailment, so as to preserve your claim that FRB is fraudulent. This is a odd use of language (like defining "selling real estate" as "selling real estate you don't own" so as to be able to claim that selling real estate is fraudulent), but whatever, just semantics.
Boy have you got this bass-ackwards.
Your scenario is not equivalent to the reality of FRB. It is fundamentally different.
Firstly, your scenario represents an agreement at the very least, if not a contract.
It is voluntary, whereas FRB is the product of state fiat. We are given no choice in the matter. See what happens when you try paying your taxes with chickens and babka.
"Is FRB faudulent?" is a meaningless question until an aspect is cited for context.
One does not deposit "money" in the bank. Currency != money. FRNs are not money - they meet none of the criteria.
ETA: The question of fraudulence is orthogonal to that of whether it is a valid monetary system, which is the more salient question. FRB may be non-fraudulent (MAY), but it is still invalid as a monetary system. In that sense, actually, it is fraudulent because it is presented as monetary when in fact it is nothing more than empty currency. It is nothing less than counterfeiting. There's the aspect.
You're conflating FRB and irredeemable fiat currency - separate issues, as discussed earlier in the thread.
With that, I'm going to go ahead and call it:
wizardwatson, still undefeated, is thread winner.
