Because I'm deaf.
I have $1,000 FRNs. I make a deposit in the bank.
Bank records this as a vault cash. This doesn't count toward reserve and isn't available for loan (not yet.
The bank decide it wants more reserve.
So it exchanges with Fed FRNs into reserve money (digital). It now has $1,000 in reserve and $0 in vault.
It can now make a loan of $900, keeping $100 in reserve. This is deducted from the reserve account. The vault is still $0.
The borrower takes the loan and cash it to his bank. Bank then converts the loan into FRNs by transferring the first bank's $900 in reserve to the second bank's vault cash.
If the above example is correct, what happens to the initial $1000 in FRNs? If they become digital, what happens to the physical notes?
If a bank can only add to its reserve by sending actual FRNs to the fed, then it seems to me that when they exchange their reserve back to FRNs, the fed can just give them the same notes that they sent earlier. Unless checkbook/digital money can also be used as reserve. Is this right?
Vault cash and the bank's reserve account, taken together, hold all of the bank's reserves. So the vault cash is part of reserves.
The only way a bank can actively get more reserves is by borrowing them from another bank or from the Fed.
Loans are not made from reserves. A new loan doesn't change the amount of reserves. It does change the amount of "excess" reserves.
With an initial $1000 deposit, the bank would start with $900 in excess reserves. After making a $900 loan, the excess reserves would go down by $90 to $810.
The borrower would deposit a check drawn on the first bank into the second bank. The Fed would process the check by reducing the balance in the first bank's reserve account and increasing the balance of the second bank's reserve account. The second bank can then ask the Fed to exchange their reserve account balance for FRNs, which can be given to the borrower in exchange for the checkbook money they just deposited.
A bank initially has the following in his vault/reserve:
BANK:
- $1000 (cash)
It lends 90% and it gets deposited back. Now it looks like this:
BANK:
- $1000 (cash)
- $900 (digital)
Then it lends 90% and it gets deposited back. Now it looks like this:
BANK:
- $1000 (cash)
- $900 (digital)
- $810 (digital)
Are you saying that when it comes time for the bank to pay, for example, $1900, it will ask the Fed to exchange the $900 digital into FRNs??
Why $810? Are we still talking about same bank or the banking system in whole?
And in the end, the "excess reserve" is unchanged, right?
Why do we need a reserve requirement for the loan itself? Where does that goes (bank can't have that as that has been borrowed out, no?)?
Wait, does the reserve requirement increase everytime a new loan is made (because new money is made, which shows up on bank's book as... more?)
Why do we need a reserve requirement for the loan itself? Where does that goes (bank can't have that as that has been borrowed out, no?)?
Wait, does the reserve requirement increase everytime a new loan is made (because new money is made, which shows up on bank's book as... more?)
A bank's reserves can be made up of both FRNs and digital money that was loaned out to it by other banks from their reserves or by the Fed. This borrowed money is actually digital. Since that digital money is now considered reserves, the bank can order FRNs from those.
So basically, when a bank borrows money from the Fed, the Fed doesn't just directly give FRNs to the bank, but it does give the bank digital money that they can then turn around and order FRNs on.
So FRNs are printed (indirectly) when banks borrow from the Fed or from another bank's reserves. But they are only printed if the bank actually needs the paper. Then, when the bank pays the Fed back, that money is "destroyed" meaning it does not go into any bank's reserves. The Fed could then use those FRNs next time some other bank needs actual paper.