Pianist4Freedom
Member
- Joined
- Feb 3, 2008
- Messages
- 132
A popular hypothesis which has been espoused numerous times on this forum is the statement: "Once new money has been loaned out of thin air, where does the money come from to pay the interest?"
It seems to me that this is making the assumption that there was no money at all in circulation before the fractional reserve lending began. But we all know that before fiat money existed, we had commodity backed money. That's very simple: whoever digs it out of the ground first can spend it, and presto, it's in the economy.
Then, the government comes along and says: "give me all your precious metal, and I'll give you paper that you must accept in exchange for the same stuff you would have exchanged your precious metal for." So at least initially, everyone still has the same purchasing power. But as many of you will point out of course, now inflation can begin.
Now, a bank can make a loan to someone out of thin air..charge interest...and if that person earns enough money to pay off the loan at interest (by selling to people who hold all that old money that was in circulation previously), then it is clear the debt virus doesn't really happen.
However this has led me to other questions: One of the nice things about commodity backed money and 100% reserves is that nobody has any obligations to anyone. It is truly the ultimate libertarian monetary system. Is it possible for all debts to be paid off in a fractional reserve lending fiat monetary system such as we have?
I've done thought experiments on this issue and it looks as though if all debts were paid off, you'd return to the same amount of money that was in circulation before the fiat money system was created. This is assuming, however, that NOBODY defaults on a loan which is unrealistic.
Which leads me to another question and I'm bolding it because it is THE question I haven't yet found an answer for: Is Loan Default the ONLY way that money can permanently enter the system? (so that it is not a liability to anyone, it's just money in someone's bank account that they earned?)
It seems to me that this is making the assumption that there was no money at all in circulation before the fractional reserve lending began. But we all know that before fiat money existed, we had commodity backed money. That's very simple: whoever digs it out of the ground first can spend it, and presto, it's in the economy.
Then, the government comes along and says: "give me all your precious metal, and I'll give you paper that you must accept in exchange for the same stuff you would have exchanged your precious metal for." So at least initially, everyone still has the same purchasing power. But as many of you will point out of course, now inflation can begin.
Now, a bank can make a loan to someone out of thin air..charge interest...and if that person earns enough money to pay off the loan at interest (by selling to people who hold all that old money that was in circulation previously), then it is clear the debt virus doesn't really happen.
However this has led me to other questions: One of the nice things about commodity backed money and 100% reserves is that nobody has any obligations to anyone. It is truly the ultimate libertarian monetary system. Is it possible for all debts to be paid off in a fractional reserve lending fiat monetary system such as we have?
I've done thought experiments on this issue and it looks as though if all debts were paid off, you'd return to the same amount of money that was in circulation before the fiat money system was created. This is assuming, however, that NOBODY defaults on a loan which is unrealistic.
Which leads me to another question and I'm bolding it because it is THE question I haven't yet found an answer for: Is Loan Default the ONLY way that money can permanently enter the system? (so that it is not a liability to anyone, it's just money in someone's bank account that they earned?)
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